1|Page
APEA PHARMACOLOGY VERSION A & B NEWEST
2025 TEST BANK| 2 VERSIONS (VERSION A & B) WITH
COMPLETE 450 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
APEA PHARMACOLOGY EXAM VERSION A
The most common method by which drugs are chemically altered within
the liver is:
A. electrolysis.
B. oxidation.
C. reduction.
D. hydrolysis. - Correct Answer -oxidation.
Doxycycline (Doryx) is classified as a:
A. penicillin.
B. macrolide.
C. cephalosporin (3rd generation).
D. tetracycline. - Correct Answer -tetracycline.
To avoid reducing the effectiveness of doxycycline (Doryx) for the
treatment of epididymitis, it should not be taken concomitantly with:
A. hydrocodone (Zohydro ER).
pg. 1
,2|Page
B. carbamazepine (Tegretol).
C. amitriptyline (Elavil).
D. terazosin (Hytrin). - Correct Answer -carbamazepine (Tegretol).
A 57-year-old man has chronic prostatitis with a causative organism that
is resistant to fluoroquinolones. The patient has an allergy to sulfa drugs.
The next best treatment option is:
A. levofloxacin (Levaquin).
B. nitrofurantoin (Macrobid).
C. doxycycline (Doryx).
D. clindamycin (Cleocin). - Correct Answer -doxycycline (Doryx).
Danazol is indicated in the treatment of:
A. ectopic pregnancy.
B. endometriosis.
C. gonadal hypertrophy.
D. ovulatory dysfunction. - Correct Answer -endometriosis.
Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate choice for the
treatment of primary dysmenorrhea in an 18-year-old woman?
A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications
B. Oral contraceptives
C. Vitamin B6
pg. 2
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D. Intrauterine devices - Correct Answer -Intrauterine devices
all other 3 are first line
IUD = last resort
A 23-year-old woman with a desire for pregnancy needs treatment for
symptoms related to polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). The initial
choice is:
A. liraglutide (Victoza).
B. metformin (Glucophage).
C. spironolactone (Aldactone).
D. finasteride (Proscar). - Correct Answer -metformin (Glucophage).
Spironolactone and finasteride are second-line therapy options.
Victoza is not indicated in the treatment of PCOS.
Nonhormonal treatments for menopausal symptoms include:
A. benzodiazepines.
B. copper intrauterine device.
C. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
D. antiepileptic/antiseizure medications. - Correct Answer -selective
serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
The best choice for short-term treatment of severe abnormal uterine
bleeding is:
pg. 3
, 4|Page
A. estrogen only.
B. androgen therapy.
C. gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogs.
D. combination estrogen/progesterone. - Correct Answer -estrogen only.
A Bartholin's gland abscess caused by Staphylococcal aureus infection is
best treated with:
A. amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin).
B. cephalexin (Keflex).
C. clindamycin (Cleocin).
D. metronidazole (Flagyl). - Correct Answer -clindamycin (Cleocin).
Due to high rates of resistance, penicillin and cephalosporins are not
recommended. Metronidazole is not indicated in the treatment of
staphylococcal infections.
Which of the following is an alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist used to treat
benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A. Oxybutynin (Ditropan)
B. Tolterodine (Detrol)
C. Solifenacin (Vesicare)
D. Doxazosin (Cardura) - Correct Answer -Doxazosin (Cardura)
Suppressive antibiotic therapy for chronic bacterial prostatitis is:
pg. 4
APEA PHARMACOLOGY VERSION A & B NEWEST
2025 TEST BANK| 2 VERSIONS (VERSION A & B) WITH
COMPLETE 450 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
APEA PHARMACOLOGY EXAM VERSION A
The most common method by which drugs are chemically altered within
the liver is:
A. electrolysis.
B. oxidation.
C. reduction.
D. hydrolysis. - Correct Answer -oxidation.
Doxycycline (Doryx) is classified as a:
A. penicillin.
B. macrolide.
C. cephalosporin (3rd generation).
D. tetracycline. - Correct Answer -tetracycline.
To avoid reducing the effectiveness of doxycycline (Doryx) for the
treatment of epididymitis, it should not be taken concomitantly with:
A. hydrocodone (Zohydro ER).
pg. 1
,2|Page
B. carbamazepine (Tegretol).
C. amitriptyline (Elavil).
D. terazosin (Hytrin). - Correct Answer -carbamazepine (Tegretol).
A 57-year-old man has chronic prostatitis with a causative organism that
is resistant to fluoroquinolones. The patient has an allergy to sulfa drugs.
The next best treatment option is:
A. levofloxacin (Levaquin).
B. nitrofurantoin (Macrobid).
C. doxycycline (Doryx).
D. clindamycin (Cleocin). - Correct Answer -doxycycline (Doryx).
Danazol is indicated in the treatment of:
A. ectopic pregnancy.
B. endometriosis.
C. gonadal hypertrophy.
D. ovulatory dysfunction. - Correct Answer -endometriosis.
Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate choice for the
treatment of primary dysmenorrhea in an 18-year-old woman?
A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications
B. Oral contraceptives
C. Vitamin B6
pg. 2
,3|Page
D. Intrauterine devices - Correct Answer -Intrauterine devices
all other 3 are first line
IUD = last resort
A 23-year-old woman with a desire for pregnancy needs treatment for
symptoms related to polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). The initial
choice is:
A. liraglutide (Victoza).
B. metformin (Glucophage).
C. spironolactone (Aldactone).
D. finasteride (Proscar). - Correct Answer -metformin (Glucophage).
Spironolactone and finasteride are second-line therapy options.
Victoza is not indicated in the treatment of PCOS.
Nonhormonal treatments for menopausal symptoms include:
A. benzodiazepines.
B. copper intrauterine device.
C. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
D. antiepileptic/antiseizure medications. - Correct Answer -selective
serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
The best choice for short-term treatment of severe abnormal uterine
bleeding is:
pg. 3
, 4|Page
A. estrogen only.
B. androgen therapy.
C. gonadotropin-releasing hormone analogs.
D. combination estrogen/progesterone. - Correct Answer -estrogen only.
A Bartholin's gland abscess caused by Staphylococcal aureus infection is
best treated with:
A. amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin).
B. cephalexin (Keflex).
C. clindamycin (Cleocin).
D. metronidazole (Flagyl). - Correct Answer -clindamycin (Cleocin).
Due to high rates of resistance, penicillin and cephalosporins are not
recommended. Metronidazole is not indicated in the treatment of
staphylococcal infections.
Which of the following is an alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist used to treat
benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A. Oxybutynin (Ditropan)
B. Tolterodine (Detrol)
C. Solifenacin (Vesicare)
D. Doxazosin (Cardura) - Correct Answer -Doxazosin (Cardura)
Suppressive antibiotic therapy for chronic bacterial prostatitis is:
pg. 4
