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TEST BANK NURS 6630 MIDTERM EXAM (2025) COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS ( DETAILED & ELABORATED) ACTUAL EXAM 2025 TEST!!

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TEST BANK NURS 6630 MIDTERM EXAM (2025) COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS ( DETAILED & ELABORATED) ACTUAL EXAM 2025 TEST!!

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TEST BANK NURS 6630 MIDTERM EXAM (2025) COMPREHENSIVE
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS ( DETAILED & ELABORATED)
ACTUAL EXAM 2025 TEST!!

Question 1
When a patient consistently fails to adhere to their prescribed treatment regimen, this behavior is
best categorized as:
A) Patient preference.
B) Noncompliance.
C) Treatment resistance.
D) Patient autonomy.
E) Informed refusal.

Correct Answer: B) Noncompliance
Rationale: Noncompliance refers to a patient's refusal or failure to follow prescribed
medical recommendations, including medication regimens, lifestyle changes, or other
therapeutic interventions.

Question 2
Disruptions in brain chemical levels that significantly affect a patient's mood are referred to as:
A) Hormonal fluctuations.
B) Neurotransmitter imbalance.
C) Synaptic plasticity.
D) Receptor desensitization.
E) Genetic predispositions.

Correct Answer: B) Neurotransmitter imbalance
Rationale: Neurotransmitter imbalance describes a state where the levels or activity of key
neurotransmitters (like serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine) in the brain are disrupted,
leading to various psychiatric symptoms, particularly mood disorders.

Question 3
In schizophrenia, symptoms that add to the patient's experience, such as hallucinations and
delusions, are known as:
A) Negative symptoms.
B) Cognitive symptoms.
C) Affective symptoms.
D) Positive symptoms.
E) Prodromal symptoms.

Correct Answer: D) Positive symptoms
Rationale: Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are those that represent an excess or
distortion of normal functions, including hallucinations (sensory experiences without
external stimuli), delusions (fixed false beliefs), disorganized thought, and agitation.

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Question 4
Increased restlessness or anxiety, often observed in schizophrenia, is a symptom described as:
A) Catatonia.
B) Agitation.
C) Apathy.
D) Anhedonia.
E) Social withdrawal.

Correct Answer: B) Agitation
Rationale: Agitation refers to a state of increased motor restlessness, anxiety, and sometimes
irritability, often seen in various psychiatric conditions including schizophrenia, where it
can be a positive symptom.

Question 5
Which neurotransmitter is most commonly linked to mood regulation, and is a primary target for
many antidepressant medications?
A) Dopamine.
B) Norepinephrine.
C) Acetylcholine.
D) Serotonin.
E) GABA.

Correct Answer: D) Serotonin
Rationale: Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) is a monoamine neurotransmitter that
plays a crucial role in regulating mood, sleep, appetite, and various cognitive functions.
Imbalances in serotonin levels are strongly implicated in mood disorders like depression
and anxiety.
Question 6
Which medication is historically recognized as the first antidepressant primarily targeting
serotonin imbalance?
A) Imipramine.
B) Phenelzine.
C) Fluoxetine (Prozac).
D) Amitriptyline.
E) Bupropion.

Correct Answer: C) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) was the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
approved in the United States. Its primary mechanism of action involves inhibiting the
reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing its availability in the synaptic cleft, making it the
first antidepressant directly targeting serotonin imbalance.

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Question 7
Impaired neurotransmitter functions, such as those seen in psychiatric illnesses, are broadly
termed:
A) Neurotransmitter surplus.
B) Dysfunctioning Neurotransmitter Systems.
C) Synaptic hypersensitivity.
D) Receptor upregulation.
E) Glial cell dysfunction.

Correct Answer: B) Dysfunctioning Neurotransmitter Systems
Rationale: Dysfunctioning neurotransmitter systems encompass a range of abnormalities in
neurotransmitter synthesis, release, reuptake, or receptor activity that contribute to the
pathophysiology of psychiatric illnesses.
Question 8
The process of converting genetic information encoded in DNA into proteins is known as:
A) Replication.
B) Transcription.
C) Translation.
D) Gene Expression.
E) Epigenetics.

Correct Answer: D) Gene Expression
Rationale: Gene expression is the complex process by which information from a gene is used
in the synthesis of a functional gene product, such as a protein or non-coding RNA. It
involves both transcription and translation.

Question 9
What type of protein initiates the process of gene transcription?
A) Ribosome.
B) DNA polymerase.
C) Transcription Factor.
D) RNA polymerase.
E) Histone.

Correct Answer: C) Transcription Factor
Rationale: Transcription factors are proteins that bind to specific DNA sequences, thereby
regulating the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA (transcription). They play a
critical role in initiating or inhibiting gene expression.

Question 10
Changes in an individual's behavior that influence genetic expression, without altering the
underlying DNA sequence, are examples of:

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A) Genetic mutations.
B) Epigenetic modifications.
C) Behavior Modification.
D) Gene therapy.
E) Pharmacogenomics.

Correct Answer: B) Epigenetic modifications.
Rationale: Behavior modification refers to direct changes in behavior. However, the
question describes changes in behavior influencing genetic expression (without altering
DNA), which is the domain of epigenetics. Epigenetics involves changes in gene activity that
do not involve alterations to the genetic code itself but still affect how genes are expressed.

Question 11
What is the enzyme system primarily responsible for metabolizing a wide variety of psychiatric
and other medications in the liver?
A) Monoamine oxidase (MAO).
B) Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT).
C) Cytochrome P450 (CYP450).
D) Acetylcholinesterase.
E) Butyrylcholinesterase.

Correct Answer: C) Cytochrome P450 (CYP450)
Rationale: The cytochrome P450 (CYP450) enzyme system, primarily located in the liver, is
a superfamily of enzymes that play a crucial role in metabolizing a vast array of
endogenous and exogenous compounds, including most psychotropic medications. Genetic
variations in CYP450 enzymes can significantly impact drug metabolism and response.

Question 12
The fraction of an administered drug dose that reaches the systemic circulation in an unchanged
form and is available to exert its effects is known as its:
A) Half-life.
B) Clearance.
C) Bioavailability.
D) Volume of distribution.
E) Protein binding.
Correct Answer: C) Bioavailability
Rationale: Bioavailability refers to the amount of drug available after metabolism
(especially first-pass metabolism in the liver for oral drugs) that reaches the systemic
circulation and is thus available to exert its pharmacological action at the target sites.

Question 13
The study of how the body absorbs, distributes, metabolizes, and excretes drugs is called:

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