RN FUNDAMENTALS ONLINE PRACTICE A EXAM 2025 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS 100% RATED CORRECT(ACCURATELY
PASSED)GRADED A+
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client. Which of the following is the most
effective way to identify the client before administration?
A) Ask the client, "Are you Mr. Smith?"
B) Check the room number and bed number.
C) Compare the client's stated name and date of birth with the information on the medication
administration record (MAR) and their wristband.
D) Verify the client's identity by looking at their picture in the electronic health record (EHR).
E) Ask the client's family member to confirm their identity.
Correct Answer: C) Compare the client's stated name and date of birth with the information
on the medication administration record (MAR) and their wristband.
Rationale: Using two unique patient identifiers (client's stated name and date of birth) and
comparing them to the MAR and the client's wristband is the most effective and safest
method to ensure the correct client receives the medication, according to the "Rights of
Medication Administration" and patient safety standards.
Question 2
A client reports a pain level of 8 on a 0-10 scale. After administering a prescribed opioid
analgesic, which action should the nurse take next?
A) Document the pain level as 8/10.
B) Encourage the client to use non-pharmacological pain relief methods.
C) Reassess the client's pain level and vital signs within the expected onset of the medication.
D) Inform the client that the medication will work immediately.
E) Notify the healthcare provider of the high pain level.
Correct Answer: C) Reassess the client's pain level and vital signs within the expected onset
of the medication.
Rationale: After administering a pain medication, especially an opioid for severe pain, the
nurse's priority is to evaluate its effectiveness. Reassessment should occur within the
medication's expected onset of action (e.g., 15-30 minutes for IV, 30-60 minutes for oral) to
determine if the pain has decreased and to monitor for any adverse effects.
Question 3
Which of the following is a key principle of medical asepsis?
A) Using sterile gloves for all patient contact.
B) Performing hand hygiene before and after direct patient contact.
C) Maintaining a sterile field during wound dressing changes.
D) Sterilizing all equipment used in client care.
E) Wearing a surgical mask at all times in the hospital.
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Correct Answer: B) Performing hand hygiene before and after direct patient contact.
Rationale: Medical asepsis (clean technique) involves practices that reduce the number,
growth, and spread of microorganisms. Hand hygiene is the single most important and
fundamental practice of medical asepsis. Sterile technique is part of surgical asepsis.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to insert a Foley catheter. Which infection control measure is essential for
this procedure?
A) Medical asepsis.
B) Sterile technique.
C) Standard precautions only.
D) Wearing clean gloves.
E) Surgical mask and gown.
Correct Answer: B) Sterile technique.
Rationale: Insertion of a Foley catheter involves entering a normally sterile body cavity (the
bladder), which carries a high risk of introducing microorganisms and causing a urinary
tract infection. Therefore, strict sterile technique (surgical asepsis) must be followed to
prevent infection.
Question 5
A client with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) is at risk for aspiration. Which nursing
intervention is most appropriate to prevent aspiration during mealtime?
A) Position the client supine during meals.
B) Provide thin liquids to facilitate swallowing.
C) Encourage the client to eat quickly to avoid fatigue.
D) Place the client in an upright position (high-Fowler's) and ensure they remain upright for 30-
60 minutes after meals.
E) Offer large bites of food to minimize chewing.
Correct Answer: D) Place the client in an upright position (high-Fowler's) and ensure they
remain upright for 30-60 minutes after meals.
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position (at least 45-90 degrees)
during meals uses gravity to help food descend into the esophagus and reduces the risk of
aspiration. Remaining upright after meals also prevents reflux and aspiration. Thin liquids
are harder to control than thickened liquids for dysphagia.
Question 6
When transferring a client from the bed to a chair, the nurse should prioritize which action?
A) Instruct the client to grab the nurse's neck for support.
B) Ensure the bed and chair wheels are locked.
C) Allow the client to slide off the bed into the chair.
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D) Request that the client ambulate independently to the chair.
E) Use a sliding board for all transfers.
Correct Answer: B) Ensure the bed and chair wheels are locked.
Rationale: Locking the wheels of the bed and the chair before any transfer is a critical safety
measure. This prevents unintentional movement of the equipment, reducing the risk of falls
for both the client and the nurse.
Question 7
A client has a temperature of 102.5°F (39.2°C). Which of the following is the nurse's priority
intervention?
A) Administer a prescribed antipyretic.
B) Offer a warm blanket.
C) Document the temperature in the chart.
D) Assess for other signs of infection.
E) Encourage fluid intake.
Correct Answer: A) Administer a prescribed antipyretic.
Rationale: A temperature of 102.5°F is a significant fever. While assessing for infection and
encouraging fluids are important, administering a prescribed antipyretic (e.g.,
acetaminophen, ibuprofen) is the priority to lower the fever, reduce discomfort, and
prevent potential complications like seizures (especially in children) or increased metabolic
demand.
Question 8
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin subcutaneously. Which site is most appropriate for
rapid absorption?
A) Deltoid muscle.
B) Vastus lateralis.
C) Abdomen.
D) Gluteal area.
E) Triceps area.
Correct Answer: C) Abdomen.
Rationale: The abdomen is the preferred site for subcutaneous insulin injections due to its
consistent and relatively rapid absorption rate, and it offers a large surface area for
rotation of sites. The deltoid and gluteal areas have slower and less predictable absorption.
Question 9
What is the primary purpose of documentation in nursing?
A) To justify nursing salaries.
B) To provide a legal record of care, facilitate communication, and ensure continuity of care.
C) To allow nurses to keep track of their tasks.
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D) To record personal opinions about the client.
E) To fulfill administrative requirements only.
Correct Answer: B) To provide a legal record of care, facilitate communication, and ensure
continuity of care.
Rationale: Comprehensive and accurate documentation serves multiple purposes: it is a
legal record of care, provides a clear communication tool among healthcare team members,
supports continuity of care, facilitates billing, and serves as a data source for research and
quality improvement.
Question 10
A client is admitted with a pressure injury on the sacrum. The nurse notes full-thickness skin loss
with damage to subcutaneous tissue. This describes which stage of pressure injury?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
E) Unstageable
Correct Answer: C) Stage 3
Rationale: A Stage 3 pressure injury involves full-thickness skin loss where adipose (fat)
tissue is visible. Granulation tissue and epibole (rolled wound edges) are often present. It
typically does not involve exposed fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage, or bone.
Question 11
When performing perineal care for an uncircumcised male client, the nurse should:
A) Retract the foreskin, cleanse, and replace the foreskin.
B) Cleanse the glans penis without retracting the foreskin.
C) Use an antiseptic solution only.
D) Avoid cleansing the perineal area to prevent discomfort.
E) Use sterile gloves for the procedure.
Correct Answer: A) Retract the foreskin, cleanse, and replace the foreskin.
Rationale: For an uncircumcised male, it is essential to gently retract the foreskin to expose
the glans penis for thorough cleansing. After cleaning, the foreskin must be returned to its
natural position to prevent paraphimosis (foreskin retraction that cannot be returned,
leading to swelling and constriction).
Question 12
Which of the following is a contraindication for applying heat therapy to a client?
A) Muscle stiffness.
B) Peripheral neuropathy.
C) Joint pain.
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS 100% RATED CORRECT(ACCURATELY
PASSED)GRADED A+
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client. Which of the following is the most
effective way to identify the client before administration?
A) Ask the client, "Are you Mr. Smith?"
B) Check the room number and bed number.
C) Compare the client's stated name and date of birth with the information on the medication
administration record (MAR) and their wristband.
D) Verify the client's identity by looking at their picture in the electronic health record (EHR).
E) Ask the client's family member to confirm their identity.
Correct Answer: C) Compare the client's stated name and date of birth with the information
on the medication administration record (MAR) and their wristband.
Rationale: Using two unique patient identifiers (client's stated name and date of birth) and
comparing them to the MAR and the client's wristband is the most effective and safest
method to ensure the correct client receives the medication, according to the "Rights of
Medication Administration" and patient safety standards.
Question 2
A client reports a pain level of 8 on a 0-10 scale. After administering a prescribed opioid
analgesic, which action should the nurse take next?
A) Document the pain level as 8/10.
B) Encourage the client to use non-pharmacological pain relief methods.
C) Reassess the client's pain level and vital signs within the expected onset of the medication.
D) Inform the client that the medication will work immediately.
E) Notify the healthcare provider of the high pain level.
Correct Answer: C) Reassess the client's pain level and vital signs within the expected onset
of the medication.
Rationale: After administering a pain medication, especially an opioid for severe pain, the
nurse's priority is to evaluate its effectiveness. Reassessment should occur within the
medication's expected onset of action (e.g., 15-30 minutes for IV, 30-60 minutes for oral) to
determine if the pain has decreased and to monitor for any adverse effects.
Question 3
Which of the following is a key principle of medical asepsis?
A) Using sterile gloves for all patient contact.
B) Performing hand hygiene before and after direct patient contact.
C) Maintaining a sterile field during wound dressing changes.
D) Sterilizing all equipment used in client care.
E) Wearing a surgical mask at all times in the hospital.
,[Type here]
Correct Answer: B) Performing hand hygiene before and after direct patient contact.
Rationale: Medical asepsis (clean technique) involves practices that reduce the number,
growth, and spread of microorganisms. Hand hygiene is the single most important and
fundamental practice of medical asepsis. Sterile technique is part of surgical asepsis.
Question 4
A nurse is preparing to insert a Foley catheter. Which infection control measure is essential for
this procedure?
A) Medical asepsis.
B) Sterile technique.
C) Standard precautions only.
D) Wearing clean gloves.
E) Surgical mask and gown.
Correct Answer: B) Sterile technique.
Rationale: Insertion of a Foley catheter involves entering a normally sterile body cavity (the
bladder), which carries a high risk of introducing microorganisms and causing a urinary
tract infection. Therefore, strict sterile technique (surgical asepsis) must be followed to
prevent infection.
Question 5
A client with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) is at risk for aspiration. Which nursing
intervention is most appropriate to prevent aspiration during mealtime?
A) Position the client supine during meals.
B) Provide thin liquids to facilitate swallowing.
C) Encourage the client to eat quickly to avoid fatigue.
D) Place the client in an upright position (high-Fowler's) and ensure they remain upright for 30-
60 minutes after meals.
E) Offer large bites of food to minimize chewing.
Correct Answer: D) Place the client in an upright position (high-Fowler's) and ensure they
remain upright for 30-60 minutes after meals.
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position (at least 45-90 degrees)
during meals uses gravity to help food descend into the esophagus and reduces the risk of
aspiration. Remaining upright after meals also prevents reflux and aspiration. Thin liquids
are harder to control than thickened liquids for dysphagia.
Question 6
When transferring a client from the bed to a chair, the nurse should prioritize which action?
A) Instruct the client to grab the nurse's neck for support.
B) Ensure the bed and chair wheels are locked.
C) Allow the client to slide off the bed into the chair.
,[Type here]
D) Request that the client ambulate independently to the chair.
E) Use a sliding board for all transfers.
Correct Answer: B) Ensure the bed and chair wheels are locked.
Rationale: Locking the wheels of the bed and the chair before any transfer is a critical safety
measure. This prevents unintentional movement of the equipment, reducing the risk of falls
for both the client and the nurse.
Question 7
A client has a temperature of 102.5°F (39.2°C). Which of the following is the nurse's priority
intervention?
A) Administer a prescribed antipyretic.
B) Offer a warm blanket.
C) Document the temperature in the chart.
D) Assess for other signs of infection.
E) Encourage fluid intake.
Correct Answer: A) Administer a prescribed antipyretic.
Rationale: A temperature of 102.5°F is a significant fever. While assessing for infection and
encouraging fluids are important, administering a prescribed antipyretic (e.g.,
acetaminophen, ibuprofen) is the priority to lower the fever, reduce discomfort, and
prevent potential complications like seizures (especially in children) or increased metabolic
demand.
Question 8
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin subcutaneously. Which site is most appropriate for
rapid absorption?
A) Deltoid muscle.
B) Vastus lateralis.
C) Abdomen.
D) Gluteal area.
E) Triceps area.
Correct Answer: C) Abdomen.
Rationale: The abdomen is the preferred site for subcutaneous insulin injections due to its
consistent and relatively rapid absorption rate, and it offers a large surface area for
rotation of sites. The deltoid and gluteal areas have slower and less predictable absorption.
Question 9
What is the primary purpose of documentation in nursing?
A) To justify nursing salaries.
B) To provide a legal record of care, facilitate communication, and ensure continuity of care.
C) To allow nurses to keep track of their tasks.
, [Type here]
D) To record personal opinions about the client.
E) To fulfill administrative requirements only.
Correct Answer: B) To provide a legal record of care, facilitate communication, and ensure
continuity of care.
Rationale: Comprehensive and accurate documentation serves multiple purposes: it is a
legal record of care, provides a clear communication tool among healthcare team members,
supports continuity of care, facilitates billing, and serves as a data source for research and
quality improvement.
Question 10
A client is admitted with a pressure injury on the sacrum. The nurse notes full-thickness skin loss
with damage to subcutaneous tissue. This describes which stage of pressure injury?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
E) Unstageable
Correct Answer: C) Stage 3
Rationale: A Stage 3 pressure injury involves full-thickness skin loss where adipose (fat)
tissue is visible. Granulation tissue and epibole (rolled wound edges) are often present. It
typically does not involve exposed fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage, or bone.
Question 11
When performing perineal care for an uncircumcised male client, the nurse should:
A) Retract the foreskin, cleanse, and replace the foreskin.
B) Cleanse the glans penis without retracting the foreskin.
C) Use an antiseptic solution only.
D) Avoid cleansing the perineal area to prevent discomfort.
E) Use sterile gloves for the procedure.
Correct Answer: A) Retract the foreskin, cleanse, and replace the foreskin.
Rationale: For an uncircumcised male, it is essential to gently retract the foreskin to expose
the glans penis for thorough cleansing. After cleaning, the foreskin must be returned to its
natural position to prevent paraphimosis (foreskin retraction that cannot be returned,
leading to swelling and constriction).
Question 12
Which of the following is a contraindication for applying heat therapy to a client?
A) Muscle stiffness.
B) Peripheral neuropathy.
C) Joint pain.
