Introduction to Family Nurse Practitioner
(FNP) 2026 – Complete Guide with
Verified Questions and Answers – 100%
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Question 1
A 34-year-old patient presents with acute unilateral ear pain, fever, and
decreased hearing. Otoscopic exam shows a bulging tympanic membrane
with decreased mobility.
What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin ear drops
D. Oral prednisone
Correct Answer: B – Amoxicillin
Rationale: Acute otitis media in adults is treated first-line with amoxicillin
unless the patient has a penicillin allergy. Ciprofloxacin drops are for otitis
externa. Steroids alone are not indicated.
Question 2
,During a well visit, a 57-year-old adult reports daytime fatigue and snores
loudly at night. BMI is 34 kg/m².
Which screening test is most appropriate?
A. STOP-BANG questionnaire
B. PHQ-9
C. AST/ALT
D. Coronary calcium score
Correct Answer: A – STOP-BANG questionnaire
Rationale: STOP-BANG screens for obstructive sleep apnea in adults with
snoring, obesity, and daytime fatigue.
Question 3
A 9-year-old child presents with a sandpaper-like rash, fever, and sore
throat. Rapid strep test is positive.
What is the best treatment?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Ceftriaxone IM
C. Supportive care only
D. Azithromycin as first-line
Correct Answer: A – Amoxicillin
Rationale: Scarlet fever (sandpaper rash + strep infection) is treated with
amoxicillin unless allergic. Azithromycin is alternative.
Question 4
,An adult with new-onset hypertension has BP 152/92 at two separate
visits. No comorbidities.
First-line therapy?
A. ACE inhibitor
B. Beta blocker
C. Lifestyle modification only
D. Clonidine
Correct Answer: A – ACE inhibitor
Rationale: First-line for uncomplicated HTN: ACEI, ARB, thiazide, or CCB.
Beta blockers are not first-line unless specific indication.
Question 5
A 26-year-old sexually active woman has dysuria, frequency, and urgency.
UA: nitrite positive, leukocyte esterase positive.
Which antibiotic is most appropriate?
A. Nitrofurantoin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin (first-line)
D. Azithromycin
Correct Answer: A – Nitrofurantoin
Rationale: First-line therapy for uncomplicated UTI in non-pregnant
women is nitrofurantoin or TMP-SMX.
6.
, A 45-year-old patient reports burning epigastric pain that improves with
eating.
Most likely diagnosis?
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. GERD
D. Cholecystitis
Answer: B — Duodenal ulcer
Rationale: Duodenal ulcer pain improves with food; gastric ulcer worsens
with eating.
7.
A 29-year-old woman with asthma uses albuterol 3× weekly. No nighttime
symptoms.
Next step?
A. Add daily inhaled corticosteroid
B. Start oral prednisone
C. Step down therapy
D. Continue current regimen
Answer: A
Rationale: Using SABA >2 times/week indicates need for ICS.
8.
A 62-year-old adult on lisinopril develops a persistent dry cough.
Alternative medication?