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ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2K20. All the information you need for the near exam quick read to guarantee a top score in 15 short pages

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ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2K20. All the information you need for the near exam quick read to guarantee a top score in 15 short pages

Institution
NURS 211
Course
NURS 211










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Institution
NURS 211
Course
NURS 211

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Uploaded on
December 7, 2025
Number of pages
25
Written in
2025/2026
Type
Exam (elaborations)
Contains
Questions & answers

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ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2K20. All the
information you need for the near exam
quick read to guarantee a top score in 15
short pages

ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2K20 – Questions 1–100
Questions 1–20 – Fundamentals & Safety

Q1: Which client should the nurse assess first?​
a) Postoperative client with BP 88/50 mmHg​
b) Client requesting dietary teaching​
c) Client ready for discharge​
d) Client with mild headache

Answer: a) Postoperative client with BP 88/50 mmHg​
Rationale: Hypotension post-surgery may indicate shock; priority is life-threatening
condition.

Q2: What is the correct sequence for donning PPE?​
a) Gown → mask → goggles → gloves​
b) Gloves → gown → mask → goggles​
c) Mask → gloves → gown → goggles​
d) Gown → gloves → mask → goggles

Answer: a) Gown → mask → goggles → gloves​
Rationale: Ensures sterility and protection.

Q3: Which nursing intervention prevents falls?​
a) Keep call light within reach​
b) Leave bed in high position​
c) Encourage unassisted walking at night​
d) Place equipment in walkways

Answer: a) Keep call light within reach​
Rationale: Clients can call for assistance, reducing fall risk.

,Q4: A client reports shortness of breath. First assessment:​
a) Oxygen saturation​
b) BP​
c) Temperature​
d) Weight

Answer: a) Oxygen saturation​
Rationale: Respiratory compromise requires immediate oxygen assessment.

Q5: Which site is correct for adult IM injection?​
a) Ventrogluteal​
b) Dorsogluteal​
c) Forearm​
d) Abdomen

Answer: a) Ventrogluteal​
Rationale: Safe site avoiding nerves and blood vessels.

Q6: Correct subcutaneous injection angle:​
a) 45–90 degrees depending on body fat​
b) 15 degrees​
c) 30 degrees​
d) 90 degrees for all patients

Answer: a) 45–90 degrees depending on body fat​
Rationale: Ensures proper medication absorption.

Q7: First action for low SpO₂ (89%):​
a) Elevate head of bed and administer oxygen​
b) Call provider​
c) Document only​
d) Remove device

Answer: a) Elevate head of bed and administer oxygen​
Rationale: Corrects hypoxia immediately.

Q8: Which client is at highest risk for skin breakdown?​
a) Bedridden with limited mobility​
b) Ambulating independently​
c) Outpatient with cold​
d) Postpartum healthy client

Answer: a) Bedridden with limited mobility​
Rationale: Immobility increases pressure ulcer risk.

, Q9: Teaching insulin self-administration:​
a) Demonstration and return demonstration​
b) Written instructions only​
c) Verbally explain once​
d) Video only

Answer: a) Demonstration and return demonstration​
Rationale: Confirms client competence.

Q10: First action for IV infiltration:​
a) Stop IV and restart elsewhere​
b) Apply heat​
c) Flush IV​
d) Monitor only

Answer: a) Stop IV and restart elsewhere​
Rationale: Prevents tissue damage from infiltration.

Q11: Five rights of medication administration include:​
a) Patient, drug, dose, route, time​
b) Patient, route, room, dose, time​
c) Patient, drug, room, route, diet​
d) Patient, medication, family, route, time

Answer: a) Patient, drug, dose, route, time​
Rationale: Ensures safe medication administration.

Q12: Early sign of hypoxia:​
a) Restlessness​
b) Cyanosis​
c) Bradycardia​
d) Hypotension

Answer: a) Restlessness​
Rationale: Neurologic symptoms precede cyanosis.

Q13: A client develops rash and shortness of breath post IV antibiotics. First action:​
a) Stop infusion and assess​
b) Continue IV​
c) Document only​
d) Apply cold pack

Answer: a) Stop infusion and assess​
Rationale: Allergic reaction may be life-threatening.
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