Lehigh Carbon Community College - ADN 160 Final exam questions, answers and rationales/ Rated A - $19.89   Add to cart

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Lehigh Carbon Community College - ADN 160 Final exam questions, answers and rationales/ Rated A

Chapter 14: Substance Use and Addictive Disorders 1. What should be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal? 1. Risk for injury R/T central nervous system stimulati on 2. Disturbed thought processes R/T tactile hallucinations 3. Ineffective coping R/T powerlessness over alcohol use 4. Ineffective denial R/T continued alcohol use despite negative consequences 2. A nurse evaluates a client’s patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump and notices 100 attempts within a 30-minute period. Which is the best rationale for assessing this client for substance addiction? 1. Narcotic pain medication is contraindicated for all clients with active substance use disorders. 2. Clients who are addicted to alcohol or benzodiazepines may develop cross-tolerance to analgesics and require increased doses to achieve effective pain control. 3. There is no need to assess the client for substance addiction. There is an obvious PCA malfunction, because these clients have a higher pain tolerance. 4. The client is experiencing alcohol withdrawal symptoms and needs accurate assessment. 3. On the first day of a client’s alcohol detoxification, which nursing intervention should take priority? 1. Strongly encourage the client to attend 90 Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) meetings in 90 days. 2. Educate the client about the biopsychosocial consequences of alcohol abuse. 3. Administer ordered chlordiazepoxide (Librium) in a dosage according to protocol. 4. Administer vitamin B1 to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. 4. Which client statement indicates a knowledge deficit related to a substance use disorder? 1. “Although it’s legal, alcohol is one of the most widely abused drugs in our society.” 2. “Tolerance to heroin develops quickly.” 3. “Flashbacks from LSD use may reoccur spontaneously.” 4. “Marijuana is like smoking cigarettes. Everyone does it. It’s essentially harmless.” 5. A lonely, depressed divorcée has been self-medicating with small amounts of cocaine for the past year. Which term should a nurse use to best describe this individual’s situation? 1. Psychological addiction 2. Physical addiction 3. Substance induced disorder 4. Social induced disorder 6. Which term should a nurse use to describe the administration of a central nervous system (CNS) depressant during the substance induced disorder of alcohol withdrawal? 1. Antagonist therapy 2. Deterrent therapy 3. Codependency therapy 4. Substitution therapy 7. A client diagnosed with chronic alcohol addiction is being discharged from an inpatient treatment facility after detoxification. Which client outcome, related to AA, would be most appropriate for a nurse to discuss with the client during discharge teaching? 1. After discharge, the client will immediately attend 90 AA meetings in 90 days. 2. After discharge, the client will rely on an AA sponsor to help control alcohol cravings. 3. After discharge, the client will incorporate family in AA attendance. 4. After discharge, the client will seek appropriate deterrent medications through AA. 8. A client with a history of heavy alcohol use is brought to an emergency department (ED) by family members who state that the client has had nothing to drink in the last 48 hours. When the nurse reports to the ED physician, which client symptom should be the nurse’s first priority? 1. Hearing and visual impairment 2. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg 3. Mood rating of 2/10 on numeric scale 4. Dehydration 9. Which client statement demonstrates positive progress toward recovery from a substance use disorder? 1. “I have completed detox and therefore am in control of my drug use.” 2. “I will faithfully attend Narcotic Anonymous (NA) when I can’t control my cravings.” 3. “As a church deacon, my focus will now be on spiritual renewal.” 4. “Taking those pills got out of control. It cost me my job, marriage, and children.” 10. A nurse holds the hand of a client who is withdrawing from alcohol. What is the nurse’s rationale for this intervention? 1. To assess for emotional strength 2. To assess for Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome 3. To assess for tachycardia 4. To assess for fine tremors. 11. A client presents with symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and states, “I haven’t eaten in three days.” A nurse’s assessment reveals BP 170/100 mm Hg, P 110, R 28, and T 97°F (36°C) with dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor. What should be the priority nursing diagnosis? 1. Knowledge deficit 2. Fluid volume excess 3. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements 4. Ineffective individual coping 12. A client’s wife has been making excuses for her alcoholic husband’s work absences. In family therapy, she states, “His problems at work are my fault.” Which is the appropriate nursing response? 1. “Why do you assume responsibility for his behaviors?” 2. “I think you should start to confront his behavior.” 3. “Your husband needs to deal with the consequences of his drinking.” 4. “Do you understand what the term enabler means?” 13. Which medication orders should a nurse anticipate for a client who has a history of benzodiazepine withdrawal delirium? 1. Haloperidol (Haldol) and fluoxetine (Prozac) 2. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and donepezil (Aricept) 3. Disulfiram (Antabuse) and lorazepan (Ativan) 4. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and phenytoin (Dilantin) 14. A nurse is interviewing a client in an outpatient addiction clinic. To promote success in the recovery process, which outcome should the nurse expect the client to initially accomplish? 1. The client will identify one person to turn to for support. 2. The client will give up all old drinking buddies. 3. The client will be able to verbalize the effects of alcohol on the body. 4. The client will correlate life problems with alcohol use. 15. A nurse is reviewing the stat laboratory data of a client in the emergency department. At what minimum blood alcohol level should a nurse expect intoxication to occur? 1. 50 mg/dL 2. 100 mg/dL 3. 250 mg/dL 4. 300 mg/dL 16. A client diagnosed with major depressive episode and substance use disorder has an altered sleep pattern and demands that a psychiatrist prescribe a sedative. Which rationale explains why a nurse should encourage the client to first try nonpharmacological interventions? 1. Sedative-hypnotics are potentially addictive, and their effectiveness will be compromised owing to tolerance. 2. Sedative-hypnotics are expensive and have numerous side effects. 3. Sedative-hypnotics interfere with necessary REM (rapid eye movement) sleep. 4. Sedative-hypnotics are known not to be as effective in promoting sleep as antidepressant medications. 17. A client diagnosed with a gambling disorder asks the nurse about medications that may be ordered by the client’s physician to treat this disorder. The nurse would give the client information on which medications? 1. Escitalopram (Lexapro) and clozapine (Clozaril) 2. Citalopram (Celexa) and olanzapine (Zyprexa) 3. Lithium carbonate (Lithobid) and sertraline (Zoloft) 4. Naltrexone (ReVia) and ziprasidone (Geodon) 18. A nurse is assessing a pathological gambler. What would differentiate this client’s behaviors from the behaviors of a non-pathological gambler? 1. Pathological gamblers have abnormal levels of neurotransmitters, whereas non-pathological gamblers do not. 2. Pathological gambling occurs more commonly among women, whereas non-pathological gambling occurs more commonly among men. 3. Pathological gambling generally runs an acute course, whereas non-pathological gambling runs a chronic course. 4. Pathological gambling is not related to stress relief, whereas non-pathological gambling is related to stress relief. 19. A nursing instructor is teaching about the impaired nurse and the consequences of this impairment. Which statement by a student indicates that further instruction is needed? 1. “The state board of nursing must be notified with factual documentation of impairment.” 2. “All state boards of nursing have passed laws that, under any circumstances, do not allow impaired nurses to practice.” 3. “Many state boards of nursing require an impaired nurse to successfully complete counseling treatment programs prior to a return to work.” 4. “After a return to practice, a recovering nurse may be closely monitored for several years.” 20. Which of the following nursing statements exemplify the cognitive process that must be completed by a nurse prior to caring for clients diagnosed with a substance-related disorder? (Select all that apply.) 1. “I am easily manipulated and need to work on this prior to caring for these clients.” 2. “Because of my father’s alcoholism, I need to examine my attitude toward these clients.” 3. “I need to review the side effects of the medications used in the withdrawal process.” 4. “I’ll need to set boundaries to maintain a therapeutic relationship.” 5. “I need to take charge when dealing with clients diagnosed with substance disorders.” 21. A nursing instructor is teaching nursing students about cirrhosis of the liver. Which of the following statements about the complications of hepatic encephalopathy should indicate to the nursing instructor that further student teaching is needed? (Select all that apply.) 1. “A diet rich in protein will promote hepatic healing.” 2. “This condition results from a rise in serum ammonia, leading to impaired mental functioning.” 3. “In this condition, an excessive amount of serous fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity.” 4. “Neomycin and lactulose are used in the treatment of this condition.” 5. “This condition is caused by the inability of the liver to convert ammonia to urea.” 22. A clinic nurse is about to meet with a client diagnosed with a gambling disorder. Which of the following symptoms and/or behaviors is the nurse likely to assess? (Select all that apply.) 1. Stressful situations precipitate gambling behaviors. 2. Anxiety and restlessness can only be relieved by placing a bet. 3. Winning brings about feelings of sexual satisfaction. 4. Gambling is used as a coping strategy. 5. Losing at gambling meets the client’s need for self-punishment. 23. A nursing supervisor is about to meet with a staff nurse suspected of diverting client medications. Which of the following assessment data would lead the supervisor to suspect that the staff nurse is impaired? (Select all that apply.) 1. The staff nurse is frequently absent from work. 2. The staff nurse experiences mood swings. 3. The staff nurse makes elaborate excuses for behavior. 4. The staff nurse frequently uses the restroom. 5. The staff nurse has a flushed face. 24. A nursing supervisor is offering an impaired staff member information regarding employee assistance programs. Which of the following facts should the supervisor include? (Select all that apply.) 1. A hotline number will be available in order to call for peer assistance. 2. A verbal contract detailing the method of treatment will be initiated prior to the program. 3. Peer support is provided through regular contact with the impaired nurse. 4. Contact to provide peer support will last for one year. 5. One of the program goals is to intervene early in order to reduce hazards to clients. 25. A nursing counselor is about to meet with a client suffering from codependency. Which of the following data would further support the assessment of this dysfunctional behavior? (Select all that apply.) 1. The client has a long history of focusing thoughts and behaviors on other people. 2. The client, as a child, experienced overindulgent and overprotective parents. 3. The client is a people pleaser and does almost anything to gain approval. 4. The client exhibits helpless behaviors but actually feels very competent. 5. The client can achieve a sense of control only through fulfilling the needs of others. Chapter 19: Addictions and Compulsions 1. A patient with a history of daily alcohol abuse was hospitalized at 0200 today. When would the nurse expect withdrawal symptoms to peak? a. Between 0800 and 1000 today (6 to 8 hours after drinking stopped) b. Between 0200 tomorrow and hospital day 2 (24 to 48 hours after drinking stopped) c. About 0200 on hospital day 3 (72 hours after drinking stopped) d. About 0200 on hospital day 4 (96 hours after drinking stopped) 2. A woman in the last trimester of pregnancy drinks 8 to 12 ounces of alcohol daily. The nurse plans for the delivery of an infant who is: a. jaundiced. b. dependent on alcohol. c. healthy but underweight. d. microcephalic and cognitively impaired. 3. A patient was admitted last night with a hip fracture sustained in a fall while intoxicated. The patient points to the Buck’s traction and screams, “Somebody tied me up with ropes.” The patient is experiencing: a. an illusion. b. a delusion. c. hallucinations. d. hypnagogic phenomenon. 4. A patient was admitted 48 hours ago for injuries sustained while intoxicated. The patient is shaky, irritable, anxious, and diaphoretic. The pulse rate is 130 beats per minute. The patient shouts, “Snakes are crawling on my bed. I’ve got to get out of here.” What is the most accurate assessment of the situation? The patient: a. is attempting to obtain attention by manipulating staff. b. may have sustained a head injury before admission. c. has symptoms of alcohol withdrawal delirium. d. is having a recurrence of an acute psychosis. 5. A patient admitted yesterday for injuries sustained in a fall while intoxicated believes snakes are crawling on the bed. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. What is the priority nursing diagnosis? a. Disturbed sensory perception b. Ineffective coping c. Ineffective denial d. Risk for injury 6. A patient admitted yesterday for injuries sustained while intoxicated believes the window blinds are snakes trying to get into the room. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. Which medication can the nurse anticipate the health care provider will prescribe? a. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor, such as phenelzine (Nardil) b. Phenothiazine, such as thioridazine (Mellaril) c. Benzodiazepine, such as lorazepam (Ativan) d. Narcotic analgesic, such as morphine 7. A hospitalized patient, injured in a fall while intoxicated, believes spiders are spinning entrapping webs in the room. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. Which nursing intervention has priority? a. Check the patient every 15 minutes. b. Rigorously encourage fluid intake. c. Provide one-on-one supervision. d. Keep the room dimly lit. 8. A patient with a history of daily alcohol abuse says, “Drinking helps me cope with being a single parent.” Which response by the nurse would help the individual conceptualize the drinking more objectively? a. “Sooner or later, alcohol will kill you. Then what will happen to your children?” b. “I hear a lot of defensiveness in your voice. Do you really believe this?” c. “If you were coping so well, why were you hospitalized again?” d. “Tell me what happened the last time you drank.” 9. A patient asks for information about Alcoholics Anonymous (AA). Which is the nurse’s best response? a. “It is a self-help group with the goal of sobriety.” b. “It is a form of group therapy led by a psychiatrist.” c. “It is a group that learns about drinking from a group leader.” d. “It is a network that advocates strong punishment for drunk drivers.” 10. Police bring a patient to the emergency department after an automobile accident. The patient is ataxic with slurred speech and mild confusion. The blood alcohol level is 400 mg/dl (0.40 mg %). Considering the relationship between behavior and blood alcohol level, which conclusion can the nurse draw? The patient: a. rarely drinks alcohol. b. has a high tolerance to alcohol. c. has been treated with disulfiram (Antabuse). d. has recently ingested both alcohol and sedative drugs. 11. A patient admitted to an alcoholism rehabilitation program says, “I’m just a social drinker. I usually have a drink or two at brunch, a few cocktails in the afternoon, wine at dinner, and several drinks during the evening.” The patient is using which defense mechanism? a. Rationalization b. Introjection c. Projection d. Denial 12. A new patient in an alcoholism rehabilitation program says, “I’m just a social drinker. I usually have a drink or two at brunch, a few cocktails in the afternoon, wine at dinner, and a few drinks in the evening.” Which response by the nurse will help the patient view the drinking more honestly? a. “I see,” and use interested silence. b. “I think you may be drinking more than you report.” c. “Being a social drinker involves having a drink or two once or twice a week.” d. “You describe drinking steadily throughout the day and evening. Am I correct?” 13. During the third week of treatment, the spouse of a patient in an alcoholism rehabilitation program says, “After discharge, I’m sure everything will be just fine.” Which remark by the nurse will be most helpful to the spouse? a. “It is good that you’re supportive of your spouse’s sobriety and want to help maintain it.” b. “Although sobriety solves some problems, new ones may emerge as one adjusts to living without alcohol.” c. “It will be important for you to structure life to avoid as much stress as possible. You will need to provide social protection.” d. “Remember that alcoholism is a disorder of self-destruction. You will need to observe your spouse’s behavior carefully.” 14. The treatment team plans care for a person diagnosed with schizophrenia and cannabis abuse. The person has recently used cannabis daily and is experiencing increased hallucinations and delusions. Which principle applies to care planning? a. Consider each disorder primary and provide simultaneous treatment. b. The person will benefit from treatment in a residential treatment facility. c. Withdraw the person from cannabis, and then treat the schizophrenia. d. Treat the schizophrenia first, and then establish the goals for the treatment of substance abuse. 15. When working with a patient beginning treatment for alcohol abuse, what is the nurse’s most therapeutic approach? a. Empathetic, supportive b. Strong, confrontational c. Skeptical, guarded d. Cool, distant 16. A patient comes to an outpatient appointment obviously intoxicated. The nurse should: a. explore the patient’s reasons for drinking today. b. arrange admission to an inpatient psychiatric unit. c. coordinate emergency admission to a detoxification unit. d. tell the patient, “We cannot see you today because you’ve been drinking.” 17. When a person first begins drinking alcohol, two drinks produce relaxation and drowsiness. After one year of drinking, four drinks are needed to achieve the same relaxed, drowsy state. Why does this change occur? a. Tolerance develops. b. The alcohol is less potent. c. Antagonistic effects occur. d. Hypomagnesemia develops. 18. Which statement most accurately describes substance addiction? a. It is a lack of control over use. Tolerance, craving, and withdrawal symptoms occur when intake is reduced or stopped. b. It occurs when psychoactive drug use interferes with the action of competing neurotransmitters. c. Symptoms occur when two or more drugs that affect the central nervous system (CNS) have additive effects. d. It involves using a combination of substances to weaken or inhibit the effect of another drug. 19. A patient who was admitted for a heroin overdose received naloxone (Narcan), which improved the breathing pattern. Two hours later, the patient reports muscle aches, abdominal cramps, gooseflesh and says, “I feel terrible.” Which analysis is correct? a. The patient is exhibiting a prodromal symptom of seizures. b. An idiosyncratic reaction to naloxone is occurring. c. Symptoms of opiate withdrawal are present. d. The patient is experiencing a relapse. 20. In the emergency department, a patient’s vital signs are: blood pressure (BP), 66/40 mm Hg; pulse (P), 140 beats per minute (bpm); and respirations (R), 8 breaths per minute and shallow. The patient overdosed on illegally obtained hydromorphone (Dilaudid). Select the priority outcome. a. Within 8 hours, vital signs will stabilize as evidenced by BP greater than 90/60 mm Hg, P less than 100 bpm, and respirations at or above 12 breaths per minute. b. The patient will be able to describe a plan for home care and achieve a drug-free state before being released from the emergency department. c. The patient will attend daily meetings of Narcotics Anonymous within 1 week of beginning treatment. d. The patient will identify two community resources for the treatment of substance abuse by discharge. 21. Select the nursing intervention necessary after administering naloxone (Narcan) to a patient experiencing an opiate overdose. a. Monitor the airway and vital signs every 15 minutes. b. Insert a nasogastric tube and test gastric pH. c. Treat hyperpyrexia with cooling measures. d. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. 22. A nurse worked at a hospital for several months, resigned, and then took a position at another hospital. In the new position, the nurse often volunteers to be the medication nurse. After several serious medication errors, an investigation reveals that the nurse was diverting patient narcotics for self-use. What early indicator of the nurse’s drug use was evident? a. Accepting responsibility for medication errors. b. Seeking to be assigned as a medication nurse. c. Frequent complaints of physical pain. d. High sociability with peers. 23. A nurse with a history of narcotic abuse is found unconscious in the hospital locker room after overdosing. The nurse is transferred to an inpatient substance abuse unit for care. Which attitudes or behaviors by nursing staff may be enabling? a. Conveying understanding that pressures associated with nursing practice underlie substance abuse. b. Pointing out that work problems are the result, but not the cause, of substance abuse. c. Conveying empathy when the nurse discusses fears of disciplinary action by the state board of nursing. d. Providing health teaching about stress management. 24. Which treatment approach is most appropriate for a patient with antisocial tendencies who has been treated several times for substance addiction but has relapsed? a. One-week detoxification program b. Long-term outpatient therapy c. Twelve-step self-help program d. Residential program 25. Which nursing diagnosis would likely apply both to a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia as well as a patient diagnosed with amphetamine-induced psychosis? a. Powerlessness b. Disturbed thought processes c. Ineffective thermoregulation d. Impaired oral mucous membrane 26. Which is an important nursing intervention when giving care to a patient withdrawing from a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant? a. Make physical contact by frequently touching the patient. b. Offer intellectual activities requiring concentration. c. Avoid manipulation by denying the patient’s requests. d. Observe for depression and suicidal ideation. 27. Which assessment findings best correlate to the withdrawal from central nervous system depressants? a. Dilated pupils, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, elation b. Labile mood, lack of coordination, fever, drowsiness c. Nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, anxiety, tremors d. Excessive eating, constipation, headache 28. A patient has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for many years. When the patient does not smoke or tries to cut back, anxiety, craving, poor concentration, and headache result. What does this scenario describe? a. Substance abuse b. Substance addiction c. Substance intoxication d. Recreational use of a social drug 29. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect in an individual who has just injected heroin? a. Anxiety, restlessness, paranoid delusions b. Heightened sexuality, insomnia, euphoria c. Muscle aching, dilated pupils, tachycardia d. Drowsiness, constricted pupils, slurred speech 30. A newly hospitalized patient has needle tracks on both arms. A friend states that the patient uses heroin daily but has not used in the past 24 hours. The nurse should assess the patient for: a. slurred speech, excessive drowsiness, and bradycardia. b. paranoid delusions, tactile hallucinations, and panic. c. runny nose, yawning, insomnia, and chills. d. anxiety, agitation, and aggression. 31. A nurse is called to the home of a neighbor and finds an unconscious person still holding a medication bottle labeled “pentobarbital sodium.” What is the nurse’s first action? a. Test reflexes b. Check pupils c. Initiate vomiting d. Establish a patent airway 32. An adult in the emergency department states, “I feel restless. Everything I look at wavers. Sometimes I’m outside my body looking at myself. I hear colors. I think I’m losing my mind.” Vital signs are slightly elevated. The nurse should suspect a: a. cocaine overdose. b. schizophrenic episode. c. phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication. d. D-lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) ingestion. 33. In what significant ways is the therapeutic environment different for a patient who has ingested D-lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) than for a patient who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP)? a. For LSD ingestion, one person stays with the patient and provides verbal support. For PCP ingestion, a regimen of limited contact with staff members is maintained, and continual visual monitoring is provided. b. For PCP ingestion, the patient is placed on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation is maintained. c. For LSD ingestion, continual moderate sensory stimulation is provided. For PCP ingestion, continual high-level stimulation is provided. d. For LSD ingestion, the patient is placed in restraints. For PCP ingestion, seizure precautions are implemented. 34. When assessing a patient who has ingested flunitrazepam (Rohypnol), the nurse would expect: a. acrophobia. b. hypothermia. c. hallucinations. d. anterograde amnesia. 35. A patient is admitted in a comatose state after ingesting 30 capsules of pentobarbital sodium. A friend of the patient says, “Often my friend drinks, along with taking more of the drug than is prescribed.” What is the effect of the use of alcohol with this drug? a. The drug’s metabolism is stimulated. b. The drug’s effect is diminished. c. A synergistic effect occurs. d. There is no effect. 36. Which medication is the nurse most likely to see prescribed as part of the treatment plan for both a patient in an alcoholism treatment program and a patient in a program for the treatment of opioid addiction? a. methadone (Dolophine) b. bromocriptine (Parlodel) c. disulfiram (Antabuse) d. naltrexone (Revia) 37. Select the most appropriate outcome for a patient completing the fourth alcohol detoxification program in one year. Before discharge, the patient will a. use rationalization in healthy ways. b. state, “I see the need for ongoing treatment.” c. identify constructive outlets for expression of anger. d. develop a trusting relationship with one staff member. 38. Which question has the highest priority when assessing a newly admitted patient with a history of alcohol abuse? a. “Have you ever had blackouts?” b. “When did you have your last drink?” c. “Has drinking caused you any problems?” d. “When did you decide to seek treatment?” 39. A patient in an alcohol treatment program says, “I have been a loser all my life. I’m so ashamed of what I have put my family through. Now, I’m not even sure I can succeed at staying sober.” Which nursing diagnosis applies? a. Chronic low self-esteem b. Situational low self-esteem c. Disturbed personal identity d. Ineffective health maintenance 40. Which documentation indicates that the treatment plan for a patient in an alcohol treatment program was effective? a. Is abstinent for 10 days and states, “I can maintain sobriety one day at a time.” Spoke with employer, who is willing to allow the patient to return to work in three weeks. b. Is abstinent for 15 days and states, “My problems are under control.” Plans to seek a new job where co-workers will not know history. c. Attends AA daily; states many of the members are “real” alcoholics and says, “I may be able to help some of them find jobs at my company.” d. Is abstinent for 21 days and says, “I know I can’t handle more than one or two drinks in a social setting.” 41. Which assessment findings support a nurse’s suspicion that a patient has been using inhalants? a. Pinpoint pupils and respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute b. Perforated nasal septum and hypertension c. Drowsiness, euphoria, and constipation d. Confusion, mouth ulcers, and ataxia 1. A patient undergoing alcohol rehabilitation decides to accept disulfiram (Antabuse) therapy to avoid impulsively responding to drinking cues. Which information should be included in the discharge teaching for this patient? Select all that apply. a. Avoid aged cheeses. b. Read labels of all liquid medications. c. Wear sunscreen and avoid bright sunlight. d. Maintain an adequate dietary intake of sodium. e. Avoid breathing fumes of paints, stains, and stripping compounds. 2. A nurse can assist a patient diagnosed with addiction and the patient’s family in which aspects of relapse prevention? Select all that apply. a. Rehearsing techniques to handle anticipated stressful situations b. Advising the patient to accept residential treatment if relapse occurs c. Assisting the patient to identify life skills needed for effective coping d. Isolating self from significant others and social situations until sobriety is established e. Teaching the patient about the physical changes to expect as the body adapts to functioning without substances 3. While caring for a patient with a methamphetamine overdose, which tasks are the priorities of care? Select all that apply. a. Administration of naloxone (Narcan) b. Vitamin B12 and folate supplements c. Restoring nutritional integrity d. Prevention of seizures e. Reduction of fever Chapter 21: Child, Partner, and Elder Violence 1. A nurse visits the home of an 11-year-old child and finds the child caring for three younger siblings. Both parents are at work. The child says, “I want to go to school, but we can’t afford a babysitter. It doesn’t matter; I’m too dumb to learn.” What preliminary assessment is evident? a. Insufficient data are present to make an assessment. b. Child and siblings are experiencing neglect. c. Children are at high risk for sexual abuse. d. Children are experiencing physical abuse. 2. An 11-year-old child is absent from school to care for siblings while the parents work. The family cannot afford a babysitter. When asked about the parents, the child reluctantly says, “My parents don’t like me. They call me stupid and say I never do anything right.” Which type of abuse is likely? a. Sexual b. Physical c. Emotional d. Economic 3. What feelings are most commonly experienced by nurses working with abusive families? a. Outrage toward the victim and sympathy for the abuser b. Sympathy for the victim and anger toward the abuser c. Unconcern for the victim and dislike for the abuser d. Vulnerability for self and empathy with the abuser 4. Which rationale best explains why a nurse should be aware of personal feelings while working with a family experiencing family violence? a. Self-awareness protects one’s own mental health. b. Strong negative feelings interfere with assessment and judgment. c. Strong positive feelings lead to underinvolvement with the victim. d. Positive feelings promote the development of sympathy for patients. 5. A clinic nurse interviews an adult patient who reports fatigue, back pain, headaches, and sleep disturbances. The patient seems tense and then becomes reluctant to provide more information and hurries to leave. How can the nurse best serve the patient? a. Explore the possibility of patient social isolation. b. Have the patient complete an abuse assessment screen. c. Ask whether the patient has ever had psychiatric counseling. d. Ask the patient to disrobe; then assess for signs of physical abuse. 6. A patient at the emergency department is diagnosed with a concussion. The patient is accompanied by a spouse who insists on staying in the room and answering all questions. The patient avoids eye contact and has a sad affect and slumped shoulders. Assessment of which additional problem has priority? a. Risk of intimate partner violence b. Phobia of crowded places c. Migraine headaches d. Major depression 7. What is a nurse’s legal responsibility if child abuse or neglect is suspected? a. Discuss the findings with the child’s teacher, principal, and school psychologist. b. Report the suspected abuse or neglect according to state regulations. c. Document the observations and speculations in the medical record. d. Continue the assessment. 8. Several children are seen in the emergency department for treatment of illnesses and injuries. Which finding would create a high index of suspicion for child abuse? The child who has: a. repeated middle ear infections. b. severe colic. c. bite marks. d. croup. as back pain may also be suspicious. Ear infections, colic, and croup are not problems induced by violence. 9. An 11-year-old child says, “My parents don’t like me. They call me stupid and say I never do anything right, but it doesn’t matter. I’m too dumb to learn.” Which nursing diagnosis applies to this child? a. Chronic low self-esteem, related to negative feedback from parents b. Deficient knowledge, related to interpersonal skills with parents c. Disturbed personal identity, related to negative self-evaluation d. Complicated grieving, related to poor academic performance 10. An adult has recently been absent from work for 3-day periods on several occasions. Each time, the individual returns to work wearing dark glasses. Facial and body bruises are apparent. What is the occupational health nurse’s priority assessment? a. Interpersonal relationships b. Work responsibilities c. Socialization skills d. Physical injuries 11. An adult has recently been absent from work for 3-day periods on several occasions. Each time, this person returns to work wearing dark glasses. Facial and body bruises are apparent. What is the occupational health nurse’s priority question? a. “Do you drink excessively?” b. “Did your partner beat you?” c. “How did this happen to you?” d. “What did you do to deserve this?” 12. An employee has recently been absent from work on several occasions. Each time, this employee returns to work wearing dark glasses. Facial and body bruises are apparent. During the occupational health nurse’s interview, the employee says, “My partner beat me, but it was because there are problems at work.” What should the nurse’s next action be? a. Call the police. b. Arrange for hospitalization. c. Call the adult protective agency. d. Document injuries with a body map. 13. A patient tells the nurse, “My husband is abusive most often when he drinks too much. His family was like that when he was growing up. He always apologizes and regrets hurting me.” What risk factor was most predictive for the husband to become abusive? a. History of family violence b. Loss of employment c. Abuse of alcohol d. Poverty 14. An adult tells the nurse, “My partner abuses me most often when drinking. The drinking has increased lately, but I always get an apology afterward and a box of candy. I’ve considered leaving but haven’t been able to bring myself to actually do it.” Which phase in the cycle of violence prevents the patient from leaving? a. Tension building b. Acute battering c. Honeymoon d. Recovery 15. After treatment for a detached retina, a victim of intimate partner violence says, “My partner only abuses me when intoxicated. I’ve considered leaving, but I was brought up to believe you stay together, no matter what happens. I always get an apology, and I can tell my partner feels bad after hitting me.” Which nursing diagnosis applies? a. Social isolation, related to lack of community support system b. Risk for injury, related to partner’s physical abuse when intoxicated c. Deficient knowledge, related to resources for escape from the abusive relationship d. Disabled family coping, related to uneven distribution of power within a relationship 16. A victim of physical abuse by an intimate partner is treated for a broken wrist. The patient has considered leaving but says, “You stay together, no matter what happens.” Which outcome should be met before the patient leaves the emergency department? The patient will: a. limit contact with the abuser by obtaining a restraining order. b. name two community resources that can be contacted. c. demonstrate insight into the abusive relationship. d. facilitate counseling for the abuser. 17. An older adult diagnosed with dementia lives with family and attends a day care center. A nurse at the day care center notices the adult has a disheveled appearance, a strong odor of urine, and bruises on the limbs and back. What type of abuse might be occurring? a. Psychological b. Financial c. Physical d. Sexual 18. An older adult diagnosed with Alzheimer disease lives with family. During the week, the person attends a day care center while the family is at work. In the evenings, members of the family provide care. Which factor makes this patient most vulnerable to abuse? a. Dementia b. Living in a rural area c. Being part of a busy family d. Being home only in the evening 19. An older adult diagnosed with Alzheimer disease lives with family. After observing multiple bruises, the home health nurse talks with the older adult’s daughter, who becomes defensive and says, “My mother often wanders at night. Last night she fell down the stairs.” Which nursing diagnosis has priority? a. Risk for injury, related to poor judgment, cognitive impairment, and lack of caregiver supervision b. Noncompliance, related to confusion and disorientation as evidenced by lack of cooperation c. Impaired verbal communication, related to brain impairment as evidenced by the confusion d. Insomnia, related to cognitive impairment as evidenced by wandering at night a. Teach the caregiver more about the effects of dementia. b. Secure additional resources for the mother’s evening and night care. c. Support the caregiver to grieve the loss of the mother’s ability to function. d. Teach the family how to give physical care more effectively and efficiently. 21. A patient has a history of physical violence against family members when frustrated and then experiences periods of remorse after each outburst. Which finding indicates success in the plan of care? The patient: a. expresses frustration verbally instead of physically. b. explains the rationale for behaviors to the victim. c. identifies three personal strengths. d. agrees to seek counseling. 22. Which referral is most appropriate for a woman who is severely beaten by her husband, has no relatives or friends in the community, is afraid to return home, and has limited financial resources? a. Support group b. Law enforcement c. Women’s shelter d. Vocational counseling 23. Which family scenario presents the greatest risk for family violence? a. An unemployed husband with low self-esteem, a wife who loses her job, and a developmentally delayed 3-yearold child b. A husband who finds employment 2 weeks after losing his previous job, a wife with stable employment, and a child doing well in school c. A single mother with an executive position, a talented child, and a widowed grandmother living in the home to provide child care d. A single homosexual male parent, an adolescent son who has just begun dating girls, and the father’s unmarried sister who has come to visit for 2 weeks 1. A 10-year-old child cares for siblings while the parents work because the family cannot afford a babysitter. This child says, “My father doesn’t like me. He calls me stupid all the time.” The mother says the father is easily frustrated and has trouble disciplining the children. The community health nurse should consider which resources to stabilize the home situation? Select all that apply. a. Parental sessions to teach childrearing practices b. Anger management counseling for the father c. Continuing home visits to provide support d. Safety plan for the wife and children e. Placement of the children in foster care 2. A nurse assists a victim of intimate partner violence to create a plan for escape if it becomes necessary. The plan should include which components? Select all that apply. a. Keep a cell phone fully charged. b. Hide money with which to buy new clothes. c. Have the telephone number for the nearest shelter. d. Take enough toys to amuse the children for 2 days. e. Secure a supply of current medications for self and children. f. Determine a code word to signal children that it is time to leave. g. Assemble birth certificates, Social Security cards, and licenses. 3. A community health nurse visits a family with four children. The father behaves angrily, finds fault with a child, and asks twice, “Why are you such a stupid kid?” The wife says, “I have difficulty disciplining the children. It’s so frustrating.” Which comments by the nurse will facilitate the interview with these parents? Select all that apply. a. “Tell me how you punish your children.” b. “How do you stop your baby from crying?” c. “Caring for four small children must be difficult.” d. “Do you or your husband ever beat the children?” e. “Calling children ‘stupid’ injures their self-esteem.” Chapter 22: Sexual Violence 1. A nurse works with a person who was raped four years ago. This person says, “It took a long time for me to recover from that horrible experience.” Which term should the nurse use when referring to this person? a. Victim b. Survivor c. Plaintiff d. Perpetrator 2. A person was abducted and raped at gunpoint. The nurse observes this person is confused, talks rapidly in disconnected phrases, and is unable to concentrate or make simple decisions. What is the person’s level of anxiety? a. Weak b. Mild c. Moderate d. Severe 3. A person was abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant. Which assessment finding best indicates the person is in the acute phase of rape trauma syndrome? a. Confusion and disbelief b. Decreased motor activity c. Flashbacks and dreams d. Fears and phobias 4. A nurse interviews a person abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant. The person says, “I can’t talk about it. Nothing happened. I have to forget!” What is the person’s present coping strategy? a. Somatic reaction b. Repression c. Projection d. Denial 5. A child was abducted and raped. Which personal reaction by the nurse could interfere with the child’s care? a. Anger b. Concern c. Empathy d. Compassion 6. A nurse working in the county jail interviews a man who recently committed a violent sexual assault against a woman. Which comment from this perpetrator is most likely? a. “She was very beautiful.” b. “I gave her what she wanted.” c. “I have issues with my mother.” d. “I’ve been depressed for a long time.” 7. A rape victim asks an emergency department nurse, “Maybe I did something to cause this attack. Was it my fault?” Which response by the nurse is the most therapeutic? a. Pose questions about the rape, helping the patient explore why it happened. b. Reassure the victim that the outcome of the situation will be positive. c. Make decisions for the victim because of the temporary confusion. d. Support the victim to separate issues of vulnerability from blame. 8. A rape victim tells the nurse, “I should not have been out on the street alone.” Which is the nurse’s most therapeutic response? a. “Rape can happen anywhere.” b. “Blaming yourself only increases your anxiety and discomfort.” c. “You believe this would not have happened if you had not been alone?” d. “You are right. You should not have been alone on the street at night.” 9. The nursing diagnosis rape trauma syndrome applies to a rape victim in the emergency department. Which outcome should occur before the patient’s discharge? a. Patient states, “I feel safe and entirely relaxed.” b. Memory of the rape is less vivid and frightening. c. Physical symptoms of pain and discomfort are no longer present. d. Patient agrees to keep a follow-up appointment with the rape crisis center. 10. The nurse cares for a victim of a violent sexual assault. What is the most therapeutic intervention? a. Use accepting, nurturing, and empathetic communication techniques. b. Educate the victim about strategies to avoid attacks in the future. c. Discourage the expression of feelings until the victim stabilizes. d. Maintain a matter-of-fact manner and objectivity. 11. What is the primary motivator for most rapists? a. Anxiety b. Need for humiliation c. Overwhelming sexual desires d. Desire to humiliate or control others 12. A nurse working a rape telephone hotline should focus communication with callers to: a. arrange long-term counseling. b. serve as a sympathetic listener. c. obtain information to relay to the local police. d. explain immediate steps that a victim of rape should take. 13. A rape victim tells the emergency department nurse, “I feel so dirty. Please let me take a shower before the doctor examines me.” The nurse should: a. arrange for the patient to shower. b. explain that washing would destroy evidence. c. give the patient a basin of hot water and towels. d. instruct the victim to wash above the waist only. 14. Which situation constitutes consensual sex rather than rape? a. After coming home intoxicated from a party, a person forces the spouse to have sex. The spouse objects. b. A person’s lover pleads to have oral sex. The person gives in but then regrets the decision. c. A person is beaten, robbed, and forcibly subjected to anal penetration by an assailant. d. A physician gives anesthesia for a procedure and has intercourse with an unconscious patient. 15. When a victim of sexual assault is discharged from the emergency department, the nurse should: a. arrange support from the victim’s family. b. provide referral information verbally and in writing. c. advise the victim to try not to think about the assault. d. offer to stay with the victim until stability is regained. 16. A victim of a sexual assault that occurred approximately 1 hour earlier sits in the emergency department rocking back and forth and repeatedly saying, “I can’t believe I’ve been raped.” This behavior is characteristic of which phase of the rape trauma syndrome? a. Anger phase b. Acute phase c. Outward adjustment phase d. Long-term reorganization phase 17. A survivor in the long-term reorganization phase of the rape trauma syndrome has experienced intrusive thoughts of the rape and developed a fear of being alone. Which finding demonstrates this survivor has made improvement? The survivor: a. temporarily withdraws from social situations. b. plans coping strategies for fearful situations. c. uses increased activity to reduce fear. d. expresses a desire to be with others. 18. A patient comes to the hospital for treatment of injuries sustained during a rape. The patient abruptly decides to decline treatment and return home. Before the patient leaves, the nurse should: a. tell the patient, “You may not leave until you receive prophylactic treatment for sexually transmitted diseases.” b. provide written information concerning the physical and emotional reactions that may be experienced. c. explain the need and importance of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing. d. offer verbal information about legal resources. 19. An unconscious person is brought to the emergency department by a friend. The friend found the person in a bedroom at a college fraternity party. Semen is observed on the person’s underclothes. The priority actions of staff members should focus on: a. maintaining the airway. b. preserving rape evidence. c. obtaining a description of the rape. d. determining what drug was ingested. 20. A victim of a violent rape has been in the emergency department for 3 hours. Evidence collection is complete. As discharge counseling begins, the victim says softly, “I will never be the same again. I can’t face my friends. There is no sense of trying to go on.” Select the nurse’s most important response. a. “Are you thinking of suicide?” b. “It will take time, but you will feel the same as before.” c. “Your friends will understand when you tell them.” d. “You will be able to find meaning in this experience as time goes on.” 21. A nurse cares for a rape victim who was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol) by the assailant. Which intervention has priority? Monitoring for: a. coma. b. seizures. c. hypotonia. d. respiratory depression. 22. When working with rape victims, immediate care focuses first on: a. collecting evidence. b. notifying law enforcement. c. helping the victim feel safe. d. documenting the victim’s comments. 1. When an emergency department nurse teaches a victim of the rape about reactions that may occur during the longterm reorganization phase, which symptoms should be included? Select all that apply. a. Development of fears and phobias b. Decreased motor activity c. Feelings of numbness d. Flashbacks, dreams e. Syncopal episodes 2. A person was abducted and raped at gunpoint by an unknown assailant. Which interventions should the nurse use while caring for this person in the emergency department? Select all that apply. a. Allow the person to talk at a comfortable pace. b. Pose questions in nonjudgmental, empathic ways. c. Place the person in a private room with a caregiver. d. Reassure the person that a family member will arrive as soon as possible. e. Invite family members to the examination room and involve them in taking the history. f. Put an arm around the person to offer reassurance that the nurse is caring and compassionate. 3. Which activities are in the scope of practice of a sexual assault nurse examiner? Select all that apply. a. Requiring HIV testing of a victim b. Collecting and preserving evidence c. Providing long-term counseling for rape victims d. Obtaining signed consents for photographs and examinations e. Providing pregnancy and sexually transmitted disease prophylaxis 4. After assessing a victim of sexual assault, which terms could the nurse use in the documentation? Select all that apply. a. Alleged b. Reported c. Penetration d. Intercourse e. Refused f. Declined Chapter 25: Survivors of Abuse or Neglect 1. A kindergarten student is frequently violent toward other children. A school nurse notices bruises and burns on the child’s face and arms. What other symptom should indicate to the nurse that the child may have been physically abused? 1. The child shrinks at the approach of adults. 2. The child begs or steals food or money. 3. The child is frequently absent from school. 4. The child is delayed in physical and emotional development. 2. A woman presents with a history of physical and emotional abuse in her intimate relationships. What should this information lead a nurse to suspect? 1. The woman may be exhibiting a controlled response pattern. 2. The woman may have a history of childhood neglect. 3. The woman may be exhibiting codependent characteristics. 4. The woman may be a victim of incest. 3. A nursing instructor is developing a lesson plan to teach about domestic violence. Which information should be included? 1. Power and control are central to the dynamic of domestic violence. 2. Poor communication and social isolation are central to the dynamic of domestic violence. 3. Erratic relationships and vulnerability are central to the dynamic of domestic violence. 4. Emotional injury and learned helplessness are central to the dynamic of domestic violence. 4. A client is brought to an emergency department after being violently raped. Which nursing action is appropriate? 1. Discourage the client from discussing the rape, because this may lead to further emotional trauma. 2. Remain nonjudgmental while actively listening to the client’s description of the violent rape event. 3. Meet the client’s self-care needs by assisting with showering and perineal care. 4. Probe for further, detailed description of the rape event. 5. A raped client answers a nurse’s questions in a monotone voice with single words, appears calm, and exhibits a blunt affect. How should the nurse interpret this client’s responses? 1. The client may be lying about the incident. 2. The client may be experiencing a silent rape reaction. 3. The client may be demonstrating a controlled response pattern. 4. The client may be having a compounded rape reaction. 6. A client who is in a severely abusive relationship is admitted to a psychiatric inpatient unit. The client fears for her life. A staff nurse asks, “Why doesn’t she just leave him?” Which is the nursing supervisor’s most appropriate response? 1. “These clients don’t know life any other way, and change is not an option until they have improved insight.” 2. “These clients have limited cognitive skills and few vocational abilities to be able to make it on their own.” 3. “These clients often have a lack of financial independence to support themselves and their children, and most have religious beliefs prohibiting divorce and separation.” 4. “These clients are paralyzed into inaction by a combination of physical threats and a sense of powerlessness.” 7. A woman comes to an emergency department with a broken nose and multiple bruises after being beaten by her husband. She states, “The beatings have been getting worse, and I’m afraid, next time, he will kill me.” Which is the appropriate nursing response? 1. “Leopards don’t change their spots, and neither will he.” 2. “There are things you can do to prevent him from losing control.” 3. “Let’s talk about your options so that you don’t have to go home.” 4. “Why don’t we call the police so that they can confront your husband with his behavior?” 8. A college student was sexually assaulted when out on a date. After several weeks of crisis intervention therapy, which client statement should indicate to a nurse that the student is handling this situation in a healthy manner? 1. “I know that it was not my fault.” 2. “My boyfriend has trouble controlling his sexual urges.” 3. “If I don’t put myself in a dating situation, I won’t be at risk.” 4. “Next time I will think twice about wearing a sexy dress.” 9. A client asks, “Why does a rapist use a weapon during the act of rape?” Which is the most appropriate nursing response? 1. “To decrease the victimizer’s insecurity.” 2. “To inflict physical harm with the weapon.” 3. “To terrorize and subdue the victim.” 4. “To mirror learned family behavior patterns related to weapons.” 10. When questioned about bruises, a woman states, “It was an accident. My husband just had a bad day at work. He’s being so gentle now and even brought me flowers. He’s going to get a new job, so it won’t happen again.” This client is in which phase of the cycle of battering? 1. Phase I: The tension-building phase 2. Phase II: The acute battering incident phase 3. Phase III: The honeymoon phase 4. Phase IV: The resolution and reorganization phase 1. Have ready access to a gun and learn how to use it. 2. Research lawyers that can aid in divorce proceedings. 3. File charges of assault and battery. 4. Have ready access to the number of a safe house for battered women. 12. A survivor of rape presents in an emergency department crying, pacing, and cursing her attacker. A nurse should recognize these client actions as which behavioral defense? 1. Controlled response pattern 2. Compounded rape reaction 3. Expressed response pattern 4. Silent rape reaction 13. Which assessment data should a school nurse recognize as a sign of physical neglect? 1. The child is often absent from school and seems apathetic and tired. 2. The child is very insecure and has poor self-esteem. 3. The child has multiple bruises on various body parts. 4. The child has sophisticated knowledge of sexual behaviors. 14. A client diagnosed with an eating disorder experiences insomnia, nightmares, and panic attacks that occur before bedtime. She has never married or dated, and she lives alone. She states to a nurse, “My father has recently moved back to town.” What should the nurse suspect? 1. Possible major depressive disorder 2. Possible history of childhood incest 3. Possible histrionic personality disorder 4. Possible history of childhood physical abuse 15. In planning care for a woman who presents as a survivor of domestic abuse, a nurse should be aware of which of the following data? (Select all that apply.) 1. It often takes several attempts before a woman leaves an abusive situation. 2. Substance abuse is a common factor in abusive relationships. 3. Until children reach school age, they are usually not affected by abuse between their parents. 4. Women in abusive relationships usually feel isolated and unsupported. 5. Economic factors rarely play a role in the decision to stay. 16. Which of the following nursing diagnoses are typically appropriate for an adult survivor of incest? (Select all that apply.) 1. Low self-esteem 2. Powerlessness 3. Disturbed personal identity 4. Knowledge deficit 5. Non-adherence 17. A nursing instructor is teaching about intimate partner violence. Which of the following student statements indicate that learning has occurred? (Select all that apply.) 1. “Intimate partner violence is a pattern of abusive behavior that is used by an intimate partner.” 2. “Intimate partner violence is used to gain power and control over the other intimate partner.” 3. “Fifty-one percent of victims of intimate violence are women.” 4. “Women ages 25 to 34 experience the highest per capita rates of intimate violence.” 5. “Victims are typically young married women who are dependent housewives.” Show Less

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