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NR 601 MIDTERM EXAM
1. A 68-year-old client with COPD presents with increased sputum
and dyspnea. The most appropriate initial management is:
A. Start oral steroids only
B. Prescribe antibiotics if sputum is purulent
C. Order a CT scan
D. Increase bronchodilator dose only
Rationale: Purulent sputum plus worsened dyspnea meets
criteria for antibiotic therapy in COPD exacerbations.
2. A 52-year-old woman complains of episodic palpitations and
heat intolerance. The first diagnostic test is:
A. Thyroid ultrasound
B. TSH level
C. MRI of the neck
D. Holter monitor
Rationale: TSH is the most sensitive first test for suspected
hyperthyroidism.
3. A 75-year-old male with hypertension describes dizziness when
standing. This most likely represents:
, A. Meniere’s disease
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Labyrinthitis
D. Anxiety
Rationale: Symptoms with positional change strongly suggest
orthostatic hypotension.
4. First-line treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in a
45-year-old healthy adult is:
A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
B. Levofloxacin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Linezolid
Rationale: Guidelines recommend high-dose amoxicillin in
low-risk adults.
5. An elderly patient with atrial fibrillation and CHADS-VASc score
of 3 needs:
A. Aspirin
B. Oral anticoagulation
C. No therapy
D. Dual antiplatelet therapy
Rationale: Score ≥2 requires anticoagulation to prevent stroke.
6. A diabetic patient with neuropathy should have which exam
each visit?
A. Foot x-ray
B. Doppler exam
C. Monofilament testing
D. ABI
Rationale: Monofilament detects loss of protective sensation
early.
, 7. A patient with suspected temporal arteritis needs immediate:
A. CT head
B. MRI
C. High-dose steroids
D. ENT referral
Rationale: Steroids must start immediately to prevent
blindness.
8. The best screening tool for depression in primary care is:
A. Beck Inventory
B. PHQ-9
C. Mini-Mental
D. GAD-7
Rationale: PHQ-9 is validated and widely used for depression.
9. A 48-year-old woman with nocturia and urgency likely has:
A. UTI
B. Overactive bladder
C. Stress incontinence
D. Overflow incontinence
Rationale: Urgency + frequency without infection suggests
OAB.
10. First-line therapy for overactive bladder:
A. Surgery
B. Antibiotics
C. Bladder training
D. Diuretics
Rationale: Behavioral modifications are initial treatment.
11. A 60-year-old smoker with hematuria should first receive:
A. CT abdomen
B. Urinalysis and urine culture