VIRTUAL ATI PREDICTOR GREEN LIGHT TEST A
AND TEST B 2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | PROFESSOR VERIFIED | ALREADY
GRADED A+ | LATEST VERSIONS (JUST RELEASED)
Introduction
This 2025 Virtual ATI Predictor Green Light Test A and Test B simulation delivers the
same number of items and cognitive rigor as the live ATI assessments used to
benchmark NCLEX-RN® readiness. Content spans all client-need categories: Safe &
Effective Care, Health Promotion, Psychosocial Integrity, and Physiological Integrity,
plus clinical judgment, prioritization, delegation, and legal-ethical dimensions. Every
item is original, scenario-driven, and blueprint-aligned to support mastery-level
performance on ATI and the 2025 NCLEX.
General Instructions
• 180 questions total (90 Test A, 90 Test B) — match live exam length
• Four-option multiple-choice, complex stem, high-level clinical judgment
• Correct answer bolded in Adobe Devanagari; concise evidence-rich rationale
• No color, no files, clean Markdown only
Test A (Questions 1–90)
Question 1:
An 8-hour post-operative cholecystectomy client receives 4 mg IV morphine. Fifteen
minutes later his respiratory rate is 8/min and SpO₂ 89%. Which action is most
appropriate?
A. Administer naloxone 0.4 mg IV push
B. Increase supplemental O₂ to 6 L via nasal cannula
C. Stimulate the client and call the provider
D. Initiate high-flow O₂ and prepare for intubation
Answer: C. Stimulate the client and call the provider
Solution: Opioid-induced respiratory depression is first managed with physical
stimulation and provider notification for possible naloxone titration. Immediate full-
pg. 1
,dose naloxone (A) can reverse pain control; high O₂ alone (B, D) masks hypoventilation
without addressing cause.
Question 2:
A client with acute asthma receives albuterol and ipratropium nebulizers. Which finding
best indicates therapeutic response?
A. Decreased wheezing
B. Respiratory rate 22/min
C. Peak expiratory flow rate ↑30%
D. Pulse 96 beats/min
Answer: C. Peak expiratory flow rate ↑30%
Solution: Objective improvement in airflow (PEFR) is the gold standard; wheeze may
decrease due to fatigue, and RR or HR changes are indirect.
Question 3:
The nurse is delegating morning hygiene to assistive personnel (AP) for a client with
continuous bladder irrigation. Which instruction is essential?
A. “Record urine output every 4 hours.”
B. “Notify me if the output is cherry-red.”
C. “Milk the tubing every 2 hours.”
D. “Irrigate the catheter if it clots.”
Answer: B. “Notify me if the output is cherry-red.”
Solution: Hematuria indicates possible hemorrhage—nurse responsibility. AP can
record I&O but cannot irrigate or milk tubing without delegation of nursing intervention.
Question 4:
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin 0.25 mg daily. Which serum potassium
level warrants immediate intervention?
A. 3.8 mEq/L
B. 3.2 mEq/L
C. 4.2 mEq/L
D. 5.0 mEq/L
Answer: B. 3.2 mEq/L
Solution: Hypokalemia <3.5 increases digoxin toxicity risk; 3.2 requires prompt
replacement before giving dose.
pg. 2
,Question 5:
Four hours after delivery, a postpartum client’s fundus is boggy and deviated to the
right. Which action should the nurse perform first?
A. Massage the fundus
B. Assist to void
C. Increase IV oxytocin
D. Check vital signs
Answer: B. Assist to void
Solution: Bladder distension displaces the uterus; emptying restores tone and reduces
bleeding. Fundal massage (A) is second-line.
Question 6:
A client with schizophrenia states, “The FBI planted a chip in my head.” This is an
example of:
A. Loose association
B. Delusion of persecution
C. Idea of reference
D. Clang association
Answer: B. Delusion of persecution
Solution: Fixed false belief of being harmed by authorities is persecutory delusion,
common in schizophrenia.
Question 7:
A 6-year-old with sickle cell crisis receives a unit of packed RBCs. Which transfusion
reaction manifests 15 minutes after initiation?
A. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
B. Acute hemolytic reaction
C. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
D. Circulatory overload
Answer: B. Acute hemolytic reaction
Solution: ABO incompatibility presents within minutes with fever, flank pain,
hypotension; most emergent.
Question 8:
The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who develops sudden dyspnea
after lunch. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
A. Edrophonium
pg. 3
, B. Prednisone
C. Atropine
D. Pyridostigmine
Answer: A. Edrophonium
Solution: Acute exacerbation suggests myasthenic crisis; edrophonium (Tensilon) test
differentiates from cholinergic crisis and temporarily improves strength.
Question 9:
Which assignment is most appropriate for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) in the ED?
A. Triage incoming clients
B. Administer heparin IV bolus for PE
C. Provide discharge teaching to a client with new-onset diabetes
D. Hang and monitor tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) for stroke
Answer: C. Provide discharge teaching to a client with new-onset diabetes
Solution: LPN scope includes stable-client teaching; triage, high-alert boluses, and tPA
administration remain RN or provider roles.
Question 10:
A client with COPD has ABG results: pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 58, HCO₃ 31. The nurse interprets
this as:
A. Acute respiratory acidosis
B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Combined acidosis
Answer: B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
Solution: Elevated CO₂ with near-normal pH and elevated bicarbonate indicates renal
compensation (chronic COPD retention).
Question 11:
The nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a postpartum client.
Which action is most important to prevent infection?
A. Cleanse the perineum from back to front
B. Maintain sterile technique during insertion
C. Inflate balloon before advancement
D. Use clean gloves and lubricant
pg. 4
AND TEST B 2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | PROFESSOR VERIFIED | ALREADY
GRADED A+ | LATEST VERSIONS (JUST RELEASED)
Introduction
This 2025 Virtual ATI Predictor Green Light Test A and Test B simulation delivers the
same number of items and cognitive rigor as the live ATI assessments used to
benchmark NCLEX-RN® readiness. Content spans all client-need categories: Safe &
Effective Care, Health Promotion, Psychosocial Integrity, and Physiological Integrity,
plus clinical judgment, prioritization, delegation, and legal-ethical dimensions. Every
item is original, scenario-driven, and blueprint-aligned to support mastery-level
performance on ATI and the 2025 NCLEX.
General Instructions
• 180 questions total (90 Test A, 90 Test B) — match live exam length
• Four-option multiple-choice, complex stem, high-level clinical judgment
• Correct answer bolded in Adobe Devanagari; concise evidence-rich rationale
• No color, no files, clean Markdown only
Test A (Questions 1–90)
Question 1:
An 8-hour post-operative cholecystectomy client receives 4 mg IV morphine. Fifteen
minutes later his respiratory rate is 8/min and SpO₂ 89%. Which action is most
appropriate?
A. Administer naloxone 0.4 mg IV push
B. Increase supplemental O₂ to 6 L via nasal cannula
C. Stimulate the client and call the provider
D. Initiate high-flow O₂ and prepare for intubation
Answer: C. Stimulate the client and call the provider
Solution: Opioid-induced respiratory depression is first managed with physical
stimulation and provider notification for possible naloxone titration. Immediate full-
pg. 1
,dose naloxone (A) can reverse pain control; high O₂ alone (B, D) masks hypoventilation
without addressing cause.
Question 2:
A client with acute asthma receives albuterol and ipratropium nebulizers. Which finding
best indicates therapeutic response?
A. Decreased wheezing
B. Respiratory rate 22/min
C. Peak expiratory flow rate ↑30%
D. Pulse 96 beats/min
Answer: C. Peak expiratory flow rate ↑30%
Solution: Objective improvement in airflow (PEFR) is the gold standard; wheeze may
decrease due to fatigue, and RR or HR changes are indirect.
Question 3:
The nurse is delegating morning hygiene to assistive personnel (AP) for a client with
continuous bladder irrigation. Which instruction is essential?
A. “Record urine output every 4 hours.”
B. “Notify me if the output is cherry-red.”
C. “Milk the tubing every 2 hours.”
D. “Irrigate the catheter if it clots.”
Answer: B. “Notify me if the output is cherry-red.”
Solution: Hematuria indicates possible hemorrhage—nurse responsibility. AP can
record I&O but cannot irrigate or milk tubing without delegation of nursing intervention.
Question 4:
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin 0.25 mg daily. Which serum potassium
level warrants immediate intervention?
A. 3.8 mEq/L
B. 3.2 mEq/L
C. 4.2 mEq/L
D. 5.0 mEq/L
Answer: B. 3.2 mEq/L
Solution: Hypokalemia <3.5 increases digoxin toxicity risk; 3.2 requires prompt
replacement before giving dose.
pg. 2
,Question 5:
Four hours after delivery, a postpartum client’s fundus is boggy and deviated to the
right. Which action should the nurse perform first?
A. Massage the fundus
B. Assist to void
C. Increase IV oxytocin
D. Check vital signs
Answer: B. Assist to void
Solution: Bladder distension displaces the uterus; emptying restores tone and reduces
bleeding. Fundal massage (A) is second-line.
Question 6:
A client with schizophrenia states, “The FBI planted a chip in my head.” This is an
example of:
A. Loose association
B. Delusion of persecution
C. Idea of reference
D. Clang association
Answer: B. Delusion of persecution
Solution: Fixed false belief of being harmed by authorities is persecutory delusion,
common in schizophrenia.
Question 7:
A 6-year-old with sickle cell crisis receives a unit of packed RBCs. Which transfusion
reaction manifests 15 minutes after initiation?
A. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
B. Acute hemolytic reaction
C. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
D. Circulatory overload
Answer: B. Acute hemolytic reaction
Solution: ABO incompatibility presents within minutes with fever, flank pain,
hypotension; most emergent.
Question 8:
The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who develops sudden dyspnea
after lunch. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
A. Edrophonium
pg. 3
, B. Prednisone
C. Atropine
D. Pyridostigmine
Answer: A. Edrophonium
Solution: Acute exacerbation suggests myasthenic crisis; edrophonium (Tensilon) test
differentiates from cholinergic crisis and temporarily improves strength.
Question 9:
Which assignment is most appropriate for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) in the ED?
A. Triage incoming clients
B. Administer heparin IV bolus for PE
C. Provide discharge teaching to a client with new-onset diabetes
D. Hang and monitor tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) for stroke
Answer: C. Provide discharge teaching to a client with new-onset diabetes
Solution: LPN scope includes stable-client teaching; triage, high-alert boluses, and tPA
administration remain RN or provider roles.
Question 10:
A client with COPD has ABG results: pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 58, HCO₃ 31. The nurse interprets
this as:
A. Acute respiratory acidosis
B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Combined acidosis
Answer: B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
Solution: Elevated CO₂ with near-normal pH and elevated bicarbonate indicates renal
compensation (chronic COPD retention).
Question 11:
The nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a postpartum client.
Which action is most important to prevent infection?
A. Cleanse the perineum from back to front
B. Maintain sterile technique during insertion
C. Inflate balloon before advancement
D. Use clean gloves and lubricant
pg. 4
