CPAN FINAL EXAM
CPAN Exam 2 LATEST / CPAN Exam Prep/
CPAN Exam Practice Exam With 300 Complete
Questions And Correct Detailed Answers
(Verified Answers) |Already Graded A+|Brand
New Version
A 75-year-old woman with asymptomatic moderate aortic stenosis requires partial colectomy
for an unresectable bleeding colonic polyp. Which of the following is the most appropriate
perioperative strategy?
A.
Refer for aortic valve replacement before surgery.
B.
Refer for balloon aortic valvuloplasty before surgery.
C.
Refer for transcatheter aortic valve replacement before surgery.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, CPAN FINAL EXAM
D.
Performing surgery with appropriate intraoperative and postoperative monitoring **
A 65-year-old man is undergoing a reduction for hip dislocation. He has a history of COPD
requiring supplemental oxygen at baseline. The patient has received fentanyl, and propofol is
given for its muscle relaxant properties. The patient's end-tidal CO2 rises, and his oxygen
saturation begins to dip below 85%. What is the next best step in the management of this
patient?
A.
Administer naloxone to reverse the fentanyl
B.
Support respirations with bag valve mask ++
C.
Perform endotracheal intubation
D.
Increase the fraction of inspired oxygen
An 11-year-old girl with cerebral palsy, spastic quadriplegia, epilepsy, aphasia, and gross
developmental delay is admitted after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. On examination, all
four extremities are hypertonic. She moans and cries with palpation and passive range of
motion of her extremities. She does not currently take any pain medications. What is the most
appropriate tool to assess her pain?
B.
r-FLACC scale
Pain assessment in nonverbal children with neurologic impairment (NI) presents unique
challenges. The r-FLACC (Revised Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, Consolability) scale is specifically
A+ TEST BANK 2
, CPAN FINAL EXAM
designed to assess pain in this population by incorporating individualized patient behaviors
that may indicate distress. Standard pain scales, such as self-reported measures, are not
reliable in children with severe communication limitations.
The r-FLACC scale is an adaptation of the original FLACC tool, which was developed for
preverbal children. The revised version allows for individualized scoring by including patient-
specific behaviors that caregivers recognize as indicators of pain. This makes it particularly
useful for children with conditions like cerebral palsy, who may display atypical pain
responses.
A 31-year-old woman undergoes a renal transplant. She is on immunosuppression therapy
with cyclosporin and prednisone to combat organ rejection. She now presents for left-knee
arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament repair and mentions a significant history of
postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). Which of the following is the most appropriate
next step in planning her anesthetic management?
A.
Proceed with total IV anesthesia (TIVA) **
B.
Avoid regional anesthesia
C.
Use of metoclopramide to decrease gastric secretions
D.
Administration of intravenous fluids
Transplant recipients are always under various regimens of immunosuppression to prevent
organ rejection.
Clinically significant reductions in serum levels of these medications can be caused by dilution
with massive fluid resuscitation perioperatively, as well as with cardiopulmonary bypass.
Many immunosuppressants are metabolized in the liver via the cytochrome P450 system.
Drugs administered during anesthesia (or preoperatively) may affect blood levels, including
increased concentrations with cimetidine and metoclopramide and decreased octreotide
A+ TEST BANK 3
, CPAN FINAL EXAM
levels.
Regional anesthesia and/or TIVA are reasonable options to minimize PONV in this patient.
A patient with severe blood loss begins to experience a drop in blood pressure, prompting
the clinician to adjust the patient's position to support their condition. In which position
should the patient be placed?
A.
Modified Trendelenburg
B.
Reverse Trendelenburg
C.
Knee-chest
D.
jackknife
A 54-year-old male undergoes surgery for gastric cancer and receives multiple units of
transfused blood. Post-operatively he complains of numbness around his mouth and
carpopedal spasm. His electrocardiogram reveals a prolonged QT interval. What is the
preferred next step in management?
A.
Infusion of 2 bicarbonate vials
B.
Infusion of 2 mEq/L potassium chloride
C.
Infusion of intravenous calcium gluconate
D.
Infusion of intravenous 50% dextrose
After a massive blood transfusion, patients can develop hypocalcemia due to the excess
citrate in the blood.
Each unit of packed red cells for transfusion contains about 2 to 3 mg of citrate. This
concentration of citrate is normally cleared within a few minutes from the body by the liver.
A+ TEST BANK 4
CPAN Exam 2 LATEST / CPAN Exam Prep/
CPAN Exam Practice Exam With 300 Complete
Questions And Correct Detailed Answers
(Verified Answers) |Already Graded A+|Brand
New Version
A 75-year-old woman with asymptomatic moderate aortic stenosis requires partial colectomy
for an unresectable bleeding colonic polyp. Which of the following is the most appropriate
perioperative strategy?
A.
Refer for aortic valve replacement before surgery.
B.
Refer for balloon aortic valvuloplasty before surgery.
C.
Refer for transcatheter aortic valve replacement before surgery.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, CPAN FINAL EXAM
D.
Performing surgery with appropriate intraoperative and postoperative monitoring **
A 65-year-old man is undergoing a reduction for hip dislocation. He has a history of COPD
requiring supplemental oxygen at baseline. The patient has received fentanyl, and propofol is
given for its muscle relaxant properties. The patient's end-tidal CO2 rises, and his oxygen
saturation begins to dip below 85%. What is the next best step in the management of this
patient?
A.
Administer naloxone to reverse the fentanyl
B.
Support respirations with bag valve mask ++
C.
Perform endotracheal intubation
D.
Increase the fraction of inspired oxygen
An 11-year-old girl with cerebral palsy, spastic quadriplegia, epilepsy, aphasia, and gross
developmental delay is admitted after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. On examination, all
four extremities are hypertonic. She moans and cries with palpation and passive range of
motion of her extremities. She does not currently take any pain medications. What is the most
appropriate tool to assess her pain?
B.
r-FLACC scale
Pain assessment in nonverbal children with neurologic impairment (NI) presents unique
challenges. The r-FLACC (Revised Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, Consolability) scale is specifically
A+ TEST BANK 2
, CPAN FINAL EXAM
designed to assess pain in this population by incorporating individualized patient behaviors
that may indicate distress. Standard pain scales, such as self-reported measures, are not
reliable in children with severe communication limitations.
The r-FLACC scale is an adaptation of the original FLACC tool, which was developed for
preverbal children. The revised version allows for individualized scoring by including patient-
specific behaviors that caregivers recognize as indicators of pain. This makes it particularly
useful for children with conditions like cerebral palsy, who may display atypical pain
responses.
A 31-year-old woman undergoes a renal transplant. She is on immunosuppression therapy
with cyclosporin and prednisone to combat organ rejection. She now presents for left-knee
arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament repair and mentions a significant history of
postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). Which of the following is the most appropriate
next step in planning her anesthetic management?
A.
Proceed with total IV anesthesia (TIVA) **
B.
Avoid regional anesthesia
C.
Use of metoclopramide to decrease gastric secretions
D.
Administration of intravenous fluids
Transplant recipients are always under various regimens of immunosuppression to prevent
organ rejection.
Clinically significant reductions in serum levels of these medications can be caused by dilution
with massive fluid resuscitation perioperatively, as well as with cardiopulmonary bypass.
Many immunosuppressants are metabolized in the liver via the cytochrome P450 system.
Drugs administered during anesthesia (or preoperatively) may affect blood levels, including
increased concentrations with cimetidine and metoclopramide and decreased octreotide
A+ TEST BANK 3
, CPAN FINAL EXAM
levels.
Regional anesthesia and/or TIVA are reasonable options to minimize PONV in this patient.
A patient with severe blood loss begins to experience a drop in blood pressure, prompting
the clinician to adjust the patient's position to support their condition. In which position
should the patient be placed?
A.
Modified Trendelenburg
B.
Reverse Trendelenburg
C.
Knee-chest
D.
jackknife
A 54-year-old male undergoes surgery for gastric cancer and receives multiple units of
transfused blood. Post-operatively he complains of numbness around his mouth and
carpopedal spasm. His electrocardiogram reveals a prolonged QT interval. What is the
preferred next step in management?
A.
Infusion of 2 bicarbonate vials
B.
Infusion of 2 mEq/L potassium chloride
C.
Infusion of intravenous calcium gluconate
D.
Infusion of intravenous 50% dextrose
After a massive blood transfusion, patients can develop hypocalcemia due to the excess
citrate in the blood.
Each unit of packed red cells for transfusion contains about 2 to 3 mg of citrate. This
concentration of citrate is normally cleared within a few minutes from the body by the liver.
A+ TEST BANK 4
