NURS 682 Exam I – Advanced Practice
Nursing Family Health I — Master Review &
Preparation Guide 2025/2026 <Latest
Version>
NURS 682 Exam I – Advanced Practice Nursing Family Health I — Master Review &
Preparation Guide 2025/2026
Domain 1: Foundations of Advanced Practice Nursing & Role Transition
1. What is the core philosophy that distinguishes the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse
(APRN) from the registered nurse?
A. Ability to perform complex procedures
B. Depth and breadth of scientific knowledge
C. A holistic, patient-centered approach to care ✓
D. Focus on health policy and leadership
2. According to the Consensus Model for APRN Regulation, what are the four essential roles of
an APRN?
A. Educator, Researcher, Administrator, Clinician
B. Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist, Clinical Nurse Specialist, Certified Nurse-Midwife,
Certified Nurse Practitioner ✓
C. Primary, Acute, Geriatric, and Pediatric Care Provider
D. Diagnostician, Prescriber, Therapist, Counselor
3. A new FNP is struggling with the transition from the "doing" role of a bedside nurse to the
"decision-making" role of a provider. This is best described as:
A. Burnout
B. Role ambiguity
C. Role transition ✓
D. Scope of practice violation
4. The legal authority for an APRN to practice is granted by:
A. The American Nurses Association (ANA)
B. The State Board of Nursing ✓
,C. The employing hospital or clinic
D. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)
5. Which document is most critical for defining the specific procedures, actions, and processes
an FNP is permitted to undertake in a specific state?
A. American Association of Nurse Practitioners (AANP) Scope of Standards
B. The Collaborative Agreement with a Physician
C. The State's Nurse Practice Act ✓
D. The Clinic's Job Description
6. Full practice authority for an APRN is defined as:
A. The ability to practice without any physician collaboration.
B. The ability to prescribe Schedule II medications independently.
C. The ability to evaluate patients, diagnose, order and interpret diagnostics, and initiate and
manage treatments, including prescribing, under the exclusive licensure authority of the state
board of nursing. ✓
D. The ability to perform surgical procedures without supervision.
7. A key strategy for a successful transition into the APRN role is:
A. Avoiding asking questions to appear confident.
B. Seeking out a mentor or preceptor for guidance. ✓
C. Working exclusively in independent practice immediately after graduation.
D. Focusing only on clinical skills and deferring business management.
8. The primary purpose of credentialing and privileging for an APRN in a healthcare system is
to:
A. Increase the cost of employment.
B. Ensure the practitioner is qualified and competent to provide specific services. ✓
C. Satisfy federal Medicare requirements only.
D. Replace state licensure.
9. Which organization is the primary certifying body for Family Nurse Practitioners (FNPs) in
the United States?
A. American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) and American Association of Nurse
Practitioners (AANP) ✓
B. National League for Nursing (NLN)
C. American Academy of Nurse Practitioners (AANP) only
D. American Medical Association (AMA)
,10. The "Triple Aim" framework in healthcare focuses on:
A. Cost, Quality, and Access
B. Improving patient experience, improving population health, and reducing per capita costs ✓
C. Diagnosis, Treatment, and Prevention
D. Efficacy, Efficiency, and Equality
Domain 2: Health Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning
11. The purpose of the "Review of Systems" (ROS) in a patient history is to:
A. Confirm the physician's diagnosis.
B. Document a complete physical exam.
C. Identify hidden or undisclosed symptoms or problems. ✓
D. Replace the need for a chief complaint.
12. Which of the following is an example of a subjective finding?
A. Blood pressure reading of 150/92 mmHg
B. A patient's report of "crushing chest pain" ✓
C. Ecchymosis observed on the forearm
D. Wheezes heard on auscultation
13. The most important component of the health history for forming a differential diagnosis is
the:
A. Past Medical History
B. Family History
C. History of Present Illness (HPI) ✓
D. Social History
14. When percussing the abdomen, a tympanic sound is typically heard over which structure?
A. The liver
B. A fluid-filled bladder
C. The stomach ✓
D. The spleen
15. A palpable, vibrating sensation felt on the chest wall during speech is known as:
A. Fremitus ✓
B. Crepitus
C. Egophony
D. Resonance
16. To best assess for peripheral arterial disease in the lower extremities, the NP should
perform:
, A. The Phalen's maneuver
B. The Allen's test
C. Palpation of pedal pulses and calculation of the ankle-brachial index (ABI) ✓
D. Assessment for Homan's sign
17. When using the otoscope to examine an adult's ear, the pinna should be pulled:
A. Up and back
B. Down and back
C. Up and forward
D. Up and back ✓
18. A patient has a blood pressure of 132/84 mmHg. According to the ACC/AHA guidelines,
this is classified as:
A. Normal
B. Elevated ✓
C. Stage 1 Hypertension
D. Stage 2 Hypertension
19. The Snellen chart is used to assess:
A. Hearing acuity
B. Visual acuity ✓
C. Cognitive function
D. Color vision
20. During a cardiac exam, the point of maximal impulse (PMI) is typically located in the:
A. 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border
B. 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line ✓
C. 4th intercostal space, left sternal border
D. 6th intercostal space, midaxillary line
Domain 3: Health Promotion & Disease Prevention Across the Lifespan
21. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) gives an "A" recommendation to which
of the following?
A. Screening for pancreatic cancer in all adults
B. Screening for colorectal cancer starting at age 45 for average-risk adults ✓
C. Annual screening for lung cancer with CT scans in all smokers
D. Screening for testicular cancer in all adolescent males
22. According to the CDC, the recommended childhood immunization schedule is updated:
A. Every 5 years
Nursing Family Health I — Master Review &
Preparation Guide 2025/2026 <Latest
Version>
NURS 682 Exam I – Advanced Practice Nursing Family Health I — Master Review &
Preparation Guide 2025/2026
Domain 1: Foundations of Advanced Practice Nursing & Role Transition
1. What is the core philosophy that distinguishes the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse
(APRN) from the registered nurse?
A. Ability to perform complex procedures
B. Depth and breadth of scientific knowledge
C. A holistic, patient-centered approach to care ✓
D. Focus on health policy and leadership
2. According to the Consensus Model for APRN Regulation, what are the four essential roles of
an APRN?
A. Educator, Researcher, Administrator, Clinician
B. Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist, Clinical Nurse Specialist, Certified Nurse-Midwife,
Certified Nurse Practitioner ✓
C. Primary, Acute, Geriatric, and Pediatric Care Provider
D. Diagnostician, Prescriber, Therapist, Counselor
3. A new FNP is struggling with the transition from the "doing" role of a bedside nurse to the
"decision-making" role of a provider. This is best described as:
A. Burnout
B. Role ambiguity
C. Role transition ✓
D. Scope of practice violation
4. The legal authority for an APRN to practice is granted by:
A. The American Nurses Association (ANA)
B. The State Board of Nursing ✓
,C. The employing hospital or clinic
D. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)
5. Which document is most critical for defining the specific procedures, actions, and processes
an FNP is permitted to undertake in a specific state?
A. American Association of Nurse Practitioners (AANP) Scope of Standards
B. The Collaborative Agreement with a Physician
C. The State's Nurse Practice Act ✓
D. The Clinic's Job Description
6. Full practice authority for an APRN is defined as:
A. The ability to practice without any physician collaboration.
B. The ability to prescribe Schedule II medications independently.
C. The ability to evaluate patients, diagnose, order and interpret diagnostics, and initiate and
manage treatments, including prescribing, under the exclusive licensure authority of the state
board of nursing. ✓
D. The ability to perform surgical procedures without supervision.
7. A key strategy for a successful transition into the APRN role is:
A. Avoiding asking questions to appear confident.
B. Seeking out a mentor or preceptor for guidance. ✓
C. Working exclusively in independent practice immediately after graduation.
D. Focusing only on clinical skills and deferring business management.
8. The primary purpose of credentialing and privileging for an APRN in a healthcare system is
to:
A. Increase the cost of employment.
B. Ensure the practitioner is qualified and competent to provide specific services. ✓
C. Satisfy federal Medicare requirements only.
D. Replace state licensure.
9. Which organization is the primary certifying body for Family Nurse Practitioners (FNPs) in
the United States?
A. American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) and American Association of Nurse
Practitioners (AANP) ✓
B. National League for Nursing (NLN)
C. American Academy of Nurse Practitioners (AANP) only
D. American Medical Association (AMA)
,10. The "Triple Aim" framework in healthcare focuses on:
A. Cost, Quality, and Access
B. Improving patient experience, improving population health, and reducing per capita costs ✓
C. Diagnosis, Treatment, and Prevention
D. Efficacy, Efficiency, and Equality
Domain 2: Health Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning
11. The purpose of the "Review of Systems" (ROS) in a patient history is to:
A. Confirm the physician's diagnosis.
B. Document a complete physical exam.
C. Identify hidden or undisclosed symptoms or problems. ✓
D. Replace the need for a chief complaint.
12. Which of the following is an example of a subjective finding?
A. Blood pressure reading of 150/92 mmHg
B. A patient's report of "crushing chest pain" ✓
C. Ecchymosis observed on the forearm
D. Wheezes heard on auscultation
13. The most important component of the health history for forming a differential diagnosis is
the:
A. Past Medical History
B. Family History
C. History of Present Illness (HPI) ✓
D. Social History
14. When percussing the abdomen, a tympanic sound is typically heard over which structure?
A. The liver
B. A fluid-filled bladder
C. The stomach ✓
D. The spleen
15. A palpable, vibrating sensation felt on the chest wall during speech is known as:
A. Fremitus ✓
B. Crepitus
C. Egophony
D. Resonance
16. To best assess for peripheral arterial disease in the lower extremities, the NP should
perform:
, A. The Phalen's maneuver
B. The Allen's test
C. Palpation of pedal pulses and calculation of the ankle-brachial index (ABI) ✓
D. Assessment for Homan's sign
17. When using the otoscope to examine an adult's ear, the pinna should be pulled:
A. Up and back
B. Down and back
C. Up and forward
D. Up and back ✓
18. A patient has a blood pressure of 132/84 mmHg. According to the ACC/AHA guidelines,
this is classified as:
A. Normal
B. Elevated ✓
C. Stage 1 Hypertension
D. Stage 2 Hypertension
19. The Snellen chart is used to assess:
A. Hearing acuity
B. Visual acuity ✓
C. Cognitive function
D. Color vision
20. During a cardiac exam, the point of maximal impulse (PMI) is typically located in the:
A. 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border
B. 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line ✓
C. 4th intercostal space, left sternal border
D. 6th intercostal space, midaxillary line
Domain 3: Health Promotion & Disease Prevention Across the Lifespan
21. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) gives an "A" recommendation to which
of the following?
A. Screening for pancreatic cancer in all adults
B. Screening for colorectal cancer starting at age 45 for average-risk adults ✓
C. Annual screening for lung cancer with CT scans in all smokers
D. Screening for testicular cancer in all adolescent males
22. According to the CDC, the recommended childhood immunization schedule is updated:
A. Every 5 years
