HESI A2 Version 3 Complete Exam 2025 – Grammar,
Math, Reading, Biology, Vocabulary, Chemistry,
Anatomy & Physiology – Actual Exam Questions and
Detailed Correct Answers (Already Graded A+)
SECTION 1 – READING COMPREHENSION
Questions 1–15 are based on the following passage.
Passage:
“Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by
hyperglycemia resulting from progressive insulin resistance and relative insulin
deficiency. Lifestyle modification remains the cornerstone of management, with
emphasis on caloric restriction, increased physical activity, and weight reduction. A
2022 meta-analysis of 42 randomized controlled trials (N = 11 348) demonstrated that a
combined intervention of dietary counseling plus 150 minutes per week of
moderate-intensity aerobic exercise lowered mean HbA1c by 0.6 % compared with
usual care (p < 0.001). Importantly, reductions were greatest among individuals with
baseline HbA1c ≥ 8.0 %. Pharmacologic therapy is indicated when glycemic targets are
not achieved within 3 months of lifestyle intervention. First-line agents include metformin
and glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonists, both of which confer additional
cardiovascular benefits. Early aggressive control reduces microvascular complications
,such as retinopathy and nephropathy by 25–35 %. Patient education should stress
self-monitoring of blood glucose (SMBG), proper foot care, and recognition of
hypoglycemic symptoms.”
1. Which statement best expresses the central idea of the passage?
A. Pharmacologic therapy is superior to lifestyle modification for T2DM.
B. Lifestyle changes alone can eliminate the need for medication in every patient.
C. Lifestyle modification is foundational, but pharmacologic therapy is sometimes
required.
D. Exercise without dietary change is sufficient to lower HbA1c by 0.6 %.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The passage states that lifestyle modification is the “cornerstone” but that
pharmacologic therapy is “indicated when glycemic targets are not achieved,” making C
the best summary. A is incorrect because the passage does not claim pharmacologic
superiority. B is too absolute (“every patient”). D is incorrect because the 0.6 %
reduction required both dietary counseling and exercise.
2. According to the passage, the greatest HbA1c reduction was observed in:
A. patients already on metformin.
B. individuals with baseline HbA1c ≥ 8.0 %.
C. patients who performed only resistance training.
D. individuals who received usual care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The passage explicitly states “reductions were greatest among individuals
with baseline HbA1c ≥ 8.0 %.” No mention is made of resistance training, and usual
care was the comparator group.
, 3. The author cites the 2022 meta-analysis primarily to:
A. emphasize the importance of self-monitoring of blood glucose.
B. provide evidence supporting lifestyle intervention efficacy.
C. argue against the use of GLP-1 receptor agonists.
D. highlight the risks of hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The meta-analysis data (0.6 % HbA1c reduction) support the effectiveness of
lifestyle interventions. A, C, and D are unrelated to the meta-analysis citation.
4. Which outcome is explicitly attributed to “early aggressive control”?
A. Weight gain prevention
B. 25–35 % reduction in microvascular complications
C. Complete remission of T2DM
D. Lowering of LDL cholesterol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The passage states early aggressive control “reduces microvascular
complications such as retinopathy and nephropathy by 25–35 %.” Remission and LDL
values are not mentioned.
5. The passage implies that GLP-1 receptor agonists are favored partly because
they:
A. replace the need for SMBG.
B. have no side effects.
C. provide cardiovascular benefits.
D. cost less than metformin.
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: The passage notes these agents “confer additional cardiovascular benefits.”
A is false because SMBG is still encouraged; B and D are unsupported.
6. Which activity is specifically recommended for patients in addition to dietary
counseling?
A. 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity aerobic exercise
B. 90 minutes of high-intensity interval training daily
C. 60 minutes of yoga twice weekly
D. 300 minutes of resistance training monthly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The passage explicitly recommends “150 minutes per week of
moderate-intensity aerobic exercise.”
7. The word “confer” in the sentence “both of which confer additional cardiovascular
benefits” most nearly means:
A. deny
B. bestow
C. delay
D. obscure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: “Confer” means to grant or bestow. The other choices do not fit contextually.
8. Which of the following is NOT listed as a microvascular complication?
A. Retinopathy
B. Nephropathy
C. Neuropathy
D. Foot ulcer
Correct Answer: D
Math, Reading, Biology, Vocabulary, Chemistry,
Anatomy & Physiology – Actual Exam Questions and
Detailed Correct Answers (Already Graded A+)
SECTION 1 – READING COMPREHENSION
Questions 1–15 are based on the following passage.
Passage:
“Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by
hyperglycemia resulting from progressive insulin resistance and relative insulin
deficiency. Lifestyle modification remains the cornerstone of management, with
emphasis on caloric restriction, increased physical activity, and weight reduction. A
2022 meta-analysis of 42 randomized controlled trials (N = 11 348) demonstrated that a
combined intervention of dietary counseling plus 150 minutes per week of
moderate-intensity aerobic exercise lowered mean HbA1c by 0.6 % compared with
usual care (p < 0.001). Importantly, reductions were greatest among individuals with
baseline HbA1c ≥ 8.0 %. Pharmacologic therapy is indicated when glycemic targets are
not achieved within 3 months of lifestyle intervention. First-line agents include metformin
and glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonists, both of which confer additional
cardiovascular benefits. Early aggressive control reduces microvascular complications
,such as retinopathy and nephropathy by 25–35 %. Patient education should stress
self-monitoring of blood glucose (SMBG), proper foot care, and recognition of
hypoglycemic symptoms.”
1. Which statement best expresses the central idea of the passage?
A. Pharmacologic therapy is superior to lifestyle modification for T2DM.
B. Lifestyle changes alone can eliminate the need for medication in every patient.
C. Lifestyle modification is foundational, but pharmacologic therapy is sometimes
required.
D. Exercise without dietary change is sufficient to lower HbA1c by 0.6 %.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The passage states that lifestyle modification is the “cornerstone” but that
pharmacologic therapy is “indicated when glycemic targets are not achieved,” making C
the best summary. A is incorrect because the passage does not claim pharmacologic
superiority. B is too absolute (“every patient”). D is incorrect because the 0.6 %
reduction required both dietary counseling and exercise.
2. According to the passage, the greatest HbA1c reduction was observed in:
A. patients already on metformin.
B. individuals with baseline HbA1c ≥ 8.0 %.
C. patients who performed only resistance training.
D. individuals who received usual care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The passage explicitly states “reductions were greatest among individuals
with baseline HbA1c ≥ 8.0 %.” No mention is made of resistance training, and usual
care was the comparator group.
, 3. The author cites the 2022 meta-analysis primarily to:
A. emphasize the importance of self-monitoring of blood glucose.
B. provide evidence supporting lifestyle intervention efficacy.
C. argue against the use of GLP-1 receptor agonists.
D. highlight the risks of hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The meta-analysis data (0.6 % HbA1c reduction) support the effectiveness of
lifestyle interventions. A, C, and D are unrelated to the meta-analysis citation.
4. Which outcome is explicitly attributed to “early aggressive control”?
A. Weight gain prevention
B. 25–35 % reduction in microvascular complications
C. Complete remission of T2DM
D. Lowering of LDL cholesterol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The passage states early aggressive control “reduces microvascular
complications such as retinopathy and nephropathy by 25–35 %.” Remission and LDL
values are not mentioned.
5. The passage implies that GLP-1 receptor agonists are favored partly because
they:
A. replace the need for SMBG.
B. have no side effects.
C. provide cardiovascular benefits.
D. cost less than metformin.
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: The passage notes these agents “confer additional cardiovascular benefits.”
A is false because SMBG is still encouraged; B and D are unsupported.
6. Which activity is specifically recommended for patients in addition to dietary
counseling?
A. 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity aerobic exercise
B. 90 minutes of high-intensity interval training daily
C. 60 minutes of yoga twice weekly
D. 300 minutes of resistance training monthly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The passage explicitly recommends “150 minutes per week of
moderate-intensity aerobic exercise.”
7. The word “confer” in the sentence “both of which confer additional cardiovascular
benefits” most nearly means:
A. deny
B. bestow
C. delay
D. obscure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: “Confer” means to grant or bestow. The other choices do not fit contextually.
8. Which of the following is NOT listed as a microvascular complication?
A. Retinopathy
B. Nephropathy
C. Neuropathy
D. Foot ulcer
Correct Answer: D
