NRNP 6675 MIDTERM EXAM
Questions and Answers
1. Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as:
Answer B) Gender Dysphoria
Explanation: Gender dysphoria is the clinical term used to describe distress or
discomfort resulting from a marked incongruence between a person's assigned sex at
birth and their gender identity.
2. Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
(Select all that apply):
Rapid dose escalation
Parenteral route of administration
Higher potency typical antipsychotics
Answer: All of the above
Explanation: These factors increase the risk of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics (Medscape).
3. Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockade in the meso-cortical pathway
causing which of the following effects?:
Answer B) Increases extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Explanation: D2 receptor blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway leads to extrapyramida
side effects such as tremors, rigidity, and tardive dyskinesia (NCBI).
,4. Phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine exert their unique behavioral effects by
blocking which of the following receptors?:
Answer D) NMDA type receptors
Explanation: Both PCP and ketamine are NMDA receptor antagonists, which induce
dissociative and hallucinogenic effects (Psychiatry Online).
5. The diagnosis used to describe a syndrome characterized by specific symptom
resulting from recent ingestion or exposure to a substance is known as:
Answer C) Substance use disorder
Explanation: Substance use disorder is a behavioral diagnosis indicating problematic
substance use leading to significant impairment or distress.
6. Abnormal involuntary movements in a rhythmic pattern affecting the face,
mouth, tongue, and jaw is known as:
Answer C) Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation: Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder caused by long-term use of
antipsychotics, characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements.
7. A deeply held belief despite evidence to the contrary, lasting at least 1 month,
without prominent hallucinations, with functional impairment that relates to the
delusional system is called:
Answer Delusional disorder
Explanation: Delusional disorder involves persistent delusions that are not due to othe
mental health conditions, with minimal or no hallucinations.
8. Which of the following is true about preoccupation with castration?:
,Answer A) This can be serious and life-threatening if castration is carried out
without medical supervision
Explanation: Preoccupation with castration can lead to dangerous behaviors like self-
castration, requiring immediate medical attention and supervision.
9. Which of the following is a system that provides a uniform language for
describing medical and surgical procedures and diagnostic services rendered by
clinicians?:
Answer CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)
Explanation: CPT codes are standardized codes used to describe medical, surgical, and
diagnostic services for billing and documentation purposes.
10. A patient on Chlorpromazine states his orgasm is dry and afterwards he will
commonly have milky urine. The APRN realizes this is which of the following?:
Answer A) Likely a harmless response to Chlorpromazine ("Thorazine")
Explanation: Chlorpromazine can cause anticholinergic side effects such as dry orgasm
and benign milky urine due to increased prolactin levels, which are generally harmless
11. A condition which results from the absence of the second female sex
chromosome (XO) and is associated with web neck, dwarfism, cubitus valgus, and
infertility is known as:
Answer B) Turner's syndrome
Explanation: Turner's syndrome is a chromosomal disorder characterized by XO
karyotype, leading to physical features like webbed neck, short stature, and infertility.
12. Which of the following would be characterized as negative symptoms of
, schizophrenia? (Choose B & C only):
B) Impaired social and occupational functioning
C) Isolation and impaired self-care
Explanation: Negative symptoms include social withdrawal, lack of motivation, and
poor self-care, which impair functioning.
13. Which of the following are keys to distinguishing OCD from psychosis?:
Answer Patients with OCD can almost always acknowledge the unreasonable
nature of their symptoms
Explanation: Insight into the irrationality of obsessions is typical in OCD, whereas
psychosis involves a lack of insight into delusional beliefs.
14. A federal program administered nationally and locally which covers enrolled
individuals 65+ who pay premiums and disabled individuals:
Answer Both A & B (Medicare and Medicaid)
Explanation: Medicare primarily covers seniors over 65, while Medicaid assists low-
income individuals, including some disabled persons.
15. Having an adequate legal description of nurse practitioner (NP) scope of
practice according to state law is important for which reasons?:
Answer All of the above
Explanation: Clear legal scope helps avoid practicing outside authorized boundaries,
ensures accountability, and facilitates reimbursement.
Questions and Answers
1. Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as:
Answer B) Gender Dysphoria
Explanation: Gender dysphoria is the clinical term used to describe distress or
discomfort resulting from a marked incongruence between a person's assigned sex at
birth and their gender identity.
2. Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
(Select all that apply):
Rapid dose escalation
Parenteral route of administration
Higher potency typical antipsychotics
Answer: All of the above
Explanation: These factors increase the risk of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics (Medscape).
3. Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockade in the meso-cortical pathway
causing which of the following effects?:
Answer B) Increases extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Explanation: D2 receptor blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway leads to extrapyramida
side effects such as tremors, rigidity, and tardive dyskinesia (NCBI).
,4. Phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine exert their unique behavioral effects by
blocking which of the following receptors?:
Answer D) NMDA type receptors
Explanation: Both PCP and ketamine are NMDA receptor antagonists, which induce
dissociative and hallucinogenic effects (Psychiatry Online).
5. The diagnosis used to describe a syndrome characterized by specific symptom
resulting from recent ingestion or exposure to a substance is known as:
Answer C) Substance use disorder
Explanation: Substance use disorder is a behavioral diagnosis indicating problematic
substance use leading to significant impairment or distress.
6. Abnormal involuntary movements in a rhythmic pattern affecting the face,
mouth, tongue, and jaw is known as:
Answer C) Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation: Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder caused by long-term use of
antipsychotics, characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements.
7. A deeply held belief despite evidence to the contrary, lasting at least 1 month,
without prominent hallucinations, with functional impairment that relates to the
delusional system is called:
Answer Delusional disorder
Explanation: Delusional disorder involves persistent delusions that are not due to othe
mental health conditions, with minimal or no hallucinations.
8. Which of the following is true about preoccupation with castration?:
,Answer A) This can be serious and life-threatening if castration is carried out
without medical supervision
Explanation: Preoccupation with castration can lead to dangerous behaviors like self-
castration, requiring immediate medical attention and supervision.
9. Which of the following is a system that provides a uniform language for
describing medical and surgical procedures and diagnostic services rendered by
clinicians?:
Answer CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)
Explanation: CPT codes are standardized codes used to describe medical, surgical, and
diagnostic services for billing and documentation purposes.
10. A patient on Chlorpromazine states his orgasm is dry and afterwards he will
commonly have milky urine. The APRN realizes this is which of the following?:
Answer A) Likely a harmless response to Chlorpromazine ("Thorazine")
Explanation: Chlorpromazine can cause anticholinergic side effects such as dry orgasm
and benign milky urine due to increased prolactin levels, which are generally harmless
11. A condition which results from the absence of the second female sex
chromosome (XO) and is associated with web neck, dwarfism, cubitus valgus, and
infertility is known as:
Answer B) Turner's syndrome
Explanation: Turner's syndrome is a chromosomal disorder characterized by XO
karyotype, leading to physical features like webbed neck, short stature, and infertility.
12. Which of the following would be characterized as negative symptoms of
, schizophrenia? (Choose B & C only):
B) Impaired social and occupational functioning
C) Isolation and impaired self-care
Explanation: Negative symptoms include social withdrawal, lack of motivation, and
poor self-care, which impair functioning.
13. Which of the following are keys to distinguishing OCD from psychosis?:
Answer Patients with OCD can almost always acknowledge the unreasonable
nature of their symptoms
Explanation: Insight into the irrationality of obsessions is typical in OCD, whereas
psychosis involves a lack of insight into delusional beliefs.
14. A federal program administered nationally and locally which covers enrolled
individuals 65+ who pay premiums and disabled individuals:
Answer Both A & B (Medicare and Medicaid)
Explanation: Medicare primarily covers seniors over 65, while Medicaid assists low-
income individuals, including some disabled persons.
15. Having an adequate legal description of nurse practitioner (NP) scope of
practice according to state law is important for which reasons?:
Answer All of the above
Explanation: Clear legal scope helps avoid practicing outside authorized boundaries,
ensures accountability, and facilitates reimbursement.
