EVOLVE HESI PHARMACOLOGY VERSION 1,2,3 AND
4 NEWEST EXAM 2025/ 2026 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
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During therapy with isoniazid, it is most important for the
nurse to monitor which laboratory value closely?
A. Liver enzyme levels
B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
C. Serum electrolyte levels
D. Complete blood count (CBC) - ANSWER-A. Liver
enzyme levels
The client receiving isoniazid is at risk for the development
of hepatitis; therefore, liver function test results should be
monitored carefully during drug therapy. Options B, C, and
D are not specific indicators of liver function, so they are
not monitored closely during isoniazid therapy.
A client with mild parkinsonism is started on oral
amantadine. Which statement accurately describes the
action of this medication?
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A. Viral organisms that provide the underlyling
pathophysiology for parkinsonism are eliminated.
B. Acetylcholine in the myoneural junction is enhanced.
C. Dopamine in the central nervous system is increased.
D. Norepinephrine release is reduced within the peripheral
system as the final step in dopamine uptake. - ANSWER-
C. Dopamine in the central nervous system is increased.
Amantadine is a dopamine-releasing agent; therefore, this
medication increases the amount of dopamine present in
the central nervous system. Although this medication is
also an antiviral agent, the antiviral effect is not significant
in the treatment of parkinsonism. Options B and D are not
affected by amantadine.
A client is taking famotidine. Which client statement should
the nurse further assess because it may indicate that the
client is experiencing a side effect of this drug?
A. "I have heartburn whenever I lie down."
B. "I am never hungry. I've lost weight in the past 2
weeks."
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C. "I have a funny metallic taste in my mouth."
D. "I seem to be having difficulty thinking clearly." -
ANSWER-D. "I seem to be having difficulty thinking
clearly."
A common side effect of of famotidine is confusion.
Options A, B, and C are not side effects of this medication.
A client with HIV who was recently diagnosed with
tuberculosis (TB) asks the nurse, "Why do I need to take
all of these medications for TB?" What information should
the nurse provide?
A. Antiretroviral medications decrease the efficacy of the
TB drugs.
B. Multiple drugs prevent the development of resistant
organisms.
C. Duration of the medication regimen is shortened.
D. Potential adverse drug reactions are minimized. -
ANSWER-B. Multiple drugs prevent the development of
resistant organisms.
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A multidrug regimen is prescribed for a client with HIV and
TB to prevent the development of resistance of the
tubercle bacilli. Although antitubercular medications can
inhibit some antiretrovirals, a multidrug regimen is needed
to inhibit the proliferation of the virulent tubercle bacilli.
The duration of antitubercular therapy is typically 6 to 9
months and is not shortened by the use of multiple
medications. A client who is receiving HIV and TB therapy
is at an increased risk of adverse reactions because of the
complex medication regimens and complications
secondary to immunosuppression.
A 67-year-old client is discharged from the hospital with a
prescription for digoxin, 0.25 mg daily. Which instruction
should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching
plan?
A. Take the medication in the morning before rising.
B. Take and record radial pulse rate daily.
C. Expect some vision changes caused by the medication.
D. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin K. - ANSWER-
B. Take and record radial pulse rate daily.