Glynco FLETC Second Half (2026)
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT
ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS
<UPDATED VERSION>
Section 1: Criminal Law and Procedure
1. What is the exclusionary rule?
A: A judicial doctrine that prohibits evidence obtained in violation of a defendant's
constitutional rights from being used against them in court.
2. The Fourth Amendment protects citizens from what?
A: Unreasonable searches and seizures by the government.
3. What is "probable cause"?
A: A reasonable belief, based on facts and circumstances, that a crime has been or is being
committed by a person, or that a place contains specific items connected to a crime.
4. What is the difference between an arrest and a detention (Terry Stop)?
A: An arrest requires probable cause and involves taking a person into custody for a prolonged
period. A detention requires only reasonable suspicion and is a brief, temporary stop to
investigate suspicious activity.
5. Under what circumstances can an officer conduct a warrantless search?
A: Examples include: incident to a lawful arrest, consent, exigent circumstances, plain view,
vehicle searches (with probable cause), and inventory searches.
6. What must be included in a Miranda warning?
A: The right to remain silent, that anything said can be used against them in court, the right to
an attorney, and that if they cannot afford an attorney, one will be appointed.
7. When must Miranda warnings be given?
A: Prior to a custodial interrogation (when a suspect is in custody and is being questioned).
8. What is the "public safety" exception to Miranda?
A: Questions limited to securing the immediate safety of the public or the officers are permitted
without a Miranda warning.
,9. What is the "fruit of the poisonous tree" doctrine?
A: Evidence that is derived from an initial constitutional violation (e.g., an illegal search) is also
tainted and generally inadmissible.
10. What is the primary purpose of a preliminary hearing?
A: To determine if there is probable cause to believe a crime was committed and that the
defendant committed it.
Section 2: Use of Force
11. What is the foundational Supreme Court case governing use of force?
A: Graham v. Connor (1989).
12. What is the "objective reasonableness" standard from Graham v. Connor?
A: The reasonableness of a use of force must be judged from the perspective of a reasonable
officer on the scene, without the 20/20 vision of hindsight.
13. What three factors are considered in the Graham analysis?
A: 1) The severity of the crime, 2) Whether the suspect poses an immediate threat to the safety
of officers or others, and 3) Whether the suspect is actively resisting arrest or attempting to
evade arrest by flight.
14. What is the difference between active aggression and passive resistance?
A: Active aggression involves hostile, attacking movements. Passive resistance is non-
compliance without physical violence (e.g., going limp).
15. What is de-escalation?
A: Tactical actions and communication used to stabilize a situation and reduce the immediacy of
a threat so more time, options, and resources can be called upon.
16. When is deadly force justified for a federal officer?
A: When the officer has a reasonable belief that the subject poses an imminent threat of death
or serious physical injury to the officer or another person.
17. What is the "Use of Force Continuum"?
A: A model, now often replaced by more dynamic concepts, that illustrates a spectrum of
subject behavior and corresponding officer response options, ranging from officer presence to
deadly force.
18. What is the importance of a use-of-force report?
A: It documents the officer's decision-making process, justifies the actions taken, and provides a
legal and administrative record of the event.
,19. What are the key components of a use-of-force report?
A: The subject's actions, the officer's perception of the threat, the tactics used before, during,
and after the force, and the outcome.
20. What is the role of a less-lethal weapon like a TASER?
A: To incapacitate a combative subject temporarily, allowing for control and apprehension with
a reduced risk of serious injury or death.
Section 3: Firearms and Tactics
21. What are the four fundamental rules of firearm safety?
A: 1) Treat every firearm as if it is loaded. 2) Never point a firearm at anything you are not
willing to destroy. 3) Keep your finger off the trigger and outside the trigger guard until your
sights are on target and you have made the decision to shoot. 4) Be sure of your target and
what is behind and in front of it.
22. What is the purpose of the "safety circle" or "180-degree rule" on the range?
A: To maintain muzzle awareness and prevent any firearm from pointing at another person.
23. What is the proper procedure for a tactical reload?
A: Retaining the partially spent magazine while inserting a fresh one, to maintain a higher round
count.
24. What is a "failure to stop" drill?
A: Two shots to the thoracic cavity (center mass), followed by one shot to the pelvic girdle or
cranial ocular cavity if the threat is not neutralized.
25. What is the primary goal of building search tactics?
A: To locate and neutralize a threat while preserving the safety of officers and potential victims.
26. What is "slicing the pie" or "cutting the corner"?
A: A method of visually clearing a corner or doorway by using slow, incremental movements to
minimize the officer's exposure.
27. What is the difference between cover and concealment?
A: Cover protects from gunfire (e.g., concrete wall, engine block). Concealment only hides you
from view but does not stop bullets (e.g., curtain, drywall).
28. What is the principle of "Fire and Movement"?
A: One officer provides suppressive fire (or a distraction) while their partner moves to a more
advantageous position.
29. Why is communication critical during team tactics?
A: To maintain situational awareness, coordinate movements, and avoid friendly fire incidents.
, 30. What is a "challenge" in a tactical context?
A: A verbal command given to identify and control an unknown person (e.g., "Police, let me see
your hands!").
Section 4: Operations and Scenarios
31. What are the three phases of a high-risk vehicle stop?
A: 1) The Approach Phase, 2) The Felony Stop Phase (removal of occupants), and 3) The Arrest
and Control Phase.
32. What is the primary concern during a vehicle pull-over?
A: Officer safety and controlling the situation.
33. What is the purpose of a "felony stop" technique?
A: To maximize officer safety and control when stopping a vehicle containing known or
suspected dangerous felons.
34. What is "officer presence" and why is it important?
A: Using professional demeanor, appearance, and command presence to gain control of a
situation and deter crime without using physical force.
35. What is the first step in any law enforcement response?
A: Scene assessment and ensuring the scene is safe for you to enter.
36. How should an officer approach a subject in a "command presence" stance?
A: From the side, at a slight angle, keeping hands free and maintaining a balanced stance.
37. What is the purpose of a "pat-down" or frisk?
A: To check for weapons that could be used to harm the officer or others, based on reasonable
suspicion.
38. What is the proper way to handcuff a subject?
A: Hands behind the back, double-locked, with the cuff's single strand facing away from the
wrist to prevent over-tightening.
39. Why is it important to double-lock handcuffs?
A: To prevent them from tightening accidentally and causing injury or a positional asphyxia risk.
40. After handcuffing a subject, what is a critical officer safety step?
A: Conducting a thorough search incident to arrest.
Section 5: Investigations and Evidence
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT
ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS
<UPDATED VERSION>
Section 1: Criminal Law and Procedure
1. What is the exclusionary rule?
A: A judicial doctrine that prohibits evidence obtained in violation of a defendant's
constitutional rights from being used against them in court.
2. The Fourth Amendment protects citizens from what?
A: Unreasonable searches and seizures by the government.
3. What is "probable cause"?
A: A reasonable belief, based on facts and circumstances, that a crime has been or is being
committed by a person, or that a place contains specific items connected to a crime.
4. What is the difference between an arrest and a detention (Terry Stop)?
A: An arrest requires probable cause and involves taking a person into custody for a prolonged
period. A detention requires only reasonable suspicion and is a brief, temporary stop to
investigate suspicious activity.
5. Under what circumstances can an officer conduct a warrantless search?
A: Examples include: incident to a lawful arrest, consent, exigent circumstances, plain view,
vehicle searches (with probable cause), and inventory searches.
6. What must be included in a Miranda warning?
A: The right to remain silent, that anything said can be used against them in court, the right to
an attorney, and that if they cannot afford an attorney, one will be appointed.
7. When must Miranda warnings be given?
A: Prior to a custodial interrogation (when a suspect is in custody and is being questioned).
8. What is the "public safety" exception to Miranda?
A: Questions limited to securing the immediate safety of the public or the officers are permitted
without a Miranda warning.
,9. What is the "fruit of the poisonous tree" doctrine?
A: Evidence that is derived from an initial constitutional violation (e.g., an illegal search) is also
tainted and generally inadmissible.
10. What is the primary purpose of a preliminary hearing?
A: To determine if there is probable cause to believe a crime was committed and that the
defendant committed it.
Section 2: Use of Force
11. What is the foundational Supreme Court case governing use of force?
A: Graham v. Connor (1989).
12. What is the "objective reasonableness" standard from Graham v. Connor?
A: The reasonableness of a use of force must be judged from the perspective of a reasonable
officer on the scene, without the 20/20 vision of hindsight.
13. What three factors are considered in the Graham analysis?
A: 1) The severity of the crime, 2) Whether the suspect poses an immediate threat to the safety
of officers or others, and 3) Whether the suspect is actively resisting arrest or attempting to
evade arrest by flight.
14. What is the difference between active aggression and passive resistance?
A: Active aggression involves hostile, attacking movements. Passive resistance is non-
compliance without physical violence (e.g., going limp).
15. What is de-escalation?
A: Tactical actions and communication used to stabilize a situation and reduce the immediacy of
a threat so more time, options, and resources can be called upon.
16. When is deadly force justified for a federal officer?
A: When the officer has a reasonable belief that the subject poses an imminent threat of death
or serious physical injury to the officer or another person.
17. What is the "Use of Force Continuum"?
A: A model, now often replaced by more dynamic concepts, that illustrates a spectrum of
subject behavior and corresponding officer response options, ranging from officer presence to
deadly force.
18. What is the importance of a use-of-force report?
A: It documents the officer's decision-making process, justifies the actions taken, and provides a
legal and administrative record of the event.
,19. What are the key components of a use-of-force report?
A: The subject's actions, the officer's perception of the threat, the tactics used before, during,
and after the force, and the outcome.
20. What is the role of a less-lethal weapon like a TASER?
A: To incapacitate a combative subject temporarily, allowing for control and apprehension with
a reduced risk of serious injury or death.
Section 3: Firearms and Tactics
21. What are the four fundamental rules of firearm safety?
A: 1) Treat every firearm as if it is loaded. 2) Never point a firearm at anything you are not
willing to destroy. 3) Keep your finger off the trigger and outside the trigger guard until your
sights are on target and you have made the decision to shoot. 4) Be sure of your target and
what is behind and in front of it.
22. What is the purpose of the "safety circle" or "180-degree rule" on the range?
A: To maintain muzzle awareness and prevent any firearm from pointing at another person.
23. What is the proper procedure for a tactical reload?
A: Retaining the partially spent magazine while inserting a fresh one, to maintain a higher round
count.
24. What is a "failure to stop" drill?
A: Two shots to the thoracic cavity (center mass), followed by one shot to the pelvic girdle or
cranial ocular cavity if the threat is not neutralized.
25. What is the primary goal of building search tactics?
A: To locate and neutralize a threat while preserving the safety of officers and potential victims.
26. What is "slicing the pie" or "cutting the corner"?
A: A method of visually clearing a corner or doorway by using slow, incremental movements to
minimize the officer's exposure.
27. What is the difference between cover and concealment?
A: Cover protects from gunfire (e.g., concrete wall, engine block). Concealment only hides you
from view but does not stop bullets (e.g., curtain, drywall).
28. What is the principle of "Fire and Movement"?
A: One officer provides suppressive fire (or a distraction) while their partner moves to a more
advantageous position.
29. Why is communication critical during team tactics?
A: To maintain situational awareness, coordinate movements, and avoid friendly fire incidents.
, 30. What is a "challenge" in a tactical context?
A: A verbal command given to identify and control an unknown person (e.g., "Police, let me see
your hands!").
Section 4: Operations and Scenarios
31. What are the three phases of a high-risk vehicle stop?
A: 1) The Approach Phase, 2) The Felony Stop Phase (removal of occupants), and 3) The Arrest
and Control Phase.
32. What is the primary concern during a vehicle pull-over?
A: Officer safety and controlling the situation.
33. What is the purpose of a "felony stop" technique?
A: To maximize officer safety and control when stopping a vehicle containing known or
suspected dangerous felons.
34. What is "officer presence" and why is it important?
A: Using professional demeanor, appearance, and command presence to gain control of a
situation and deter crime without using physical force.
35. What is the first step in any law enforcement response?
A: Scene assessment and ensuring the scene is safe for you to enter.
36. How should an officer approach a subject in a "command presence" stance?
A: From the side, at a slight angle, keeping hands free and maintaining a balanced stance.
37. What is the purpose of a "pat-down" or frisk?
A: To check for weapons that could be used to harm the officer or others, based on reasonable
suspicion.
38. What is the proper way to handcuff a subject?
A: Hands behind the back, double-locked, with the cuff's single strand facing away from the
wrist to prevent over-tightening.
39. Why is it important to double-lock handcuffs?
A: To prevent them from tightening accidentally and causing injury or a positional asphyxia risk.
40. After handcuffing a subject, what is a critical officer safety step?
A: Conducting a thorough search incident to arrest.
Section 5: Investigations and Evidence
