2027 Update) Guide| 100 out of 100 | Verified 2027 Update) Guide| 100 out of 100 | Verified
Questions & Answers | Grade A Questions & Answers | Grade A
E. 32cm
ANSWER C
You are called to see a 30 year old man with rapidly deteriorating asthma. Following appropriate Millers formula:
medical management an endotracheal tube is inserted and he is ventilated with a mechanical
Depth= 12 + (pt height cms/10)
ventilator with a tidal volume of 600ml and a rate of 12 breaths per minute. Five minutes later
the blood pressure is unrecordable and external cardiac massage is commenced. Arterial blood is therefore 28 in this case.
taked and shows ph 7.08, pCO2 96 mmHg, pO2 36 mmHg, SpO2 46% and bicarbonate 27
mmol/L. He is administered adrenaline, salbutamol, pancuronium, bicarbonate and calcium
gluconate. The ECG shows sinus rhythm at a rate of 60 beats per minute. The patient remains
pulseless and cyanosed with fixed dilated pupils and distended neck veins. The most appropriate
Features of severe pre-eclampsia include all except:
management is to
A. Foetal growth retardation
A. cease resuscitation
B. Peripheral oedema
B. administer further adrenaline
C. Systolic BP more than 160
C. insert bilateral intercostal drains
D. Thrombocytopenia
D. cease ventilation for 30 seconds and resume at a slower rate
E. Severe proteinuria
E. increase peak inspiratory pressure
ANSWER B
ANSWER D
A 20 year old man was punched in the throat 3 hours ago at a party. He is now complaining of
A 42 year old lady presents for right pneumonectomy with a left sided double-lumen tube. She is
severe pain, difficulty swallowing, has a hoarse voice and had has some haemoptysis. What is
132kg and 160cm. What depth, measured at the incisors, is likely to give the ideal position?
your next step in his management?
A. 24cm
A. Awake Fibreoptic Intubation
B. 26cm
B. CT scan for laryngeal fractures
C. 28cm
C. Direct laryngoscopy after topicalising with local anaesthetic
D. 30cm
D. Nasopharyngoscopy by an ENT surgeon
, ANZCA MCQS Final Exam V2 (Latest 2026/ ANZCA MCQS Final Exam V2 (Latest 2026/
2027 Update) Guide| 100 out of 100 | Verified 2027 Update) Guide| 100 out of 100 | Verified
Questions & Answers | Grade A Questions & Answers | Grade A
E. Soft tissue xray of the neck
ANSWER D serum ferritin
Serum Iron is also low but is low in Anaemia Chronic Disease too, whereas ferritin is more
specific for Fe Deficiency.
A 60 year old man with normal LV function is having coronary artery bypass grafting. After
separation from the bypass machine he becomes hypotensive with ST elevation in leads II and
aVF. The Swan Ganz Catheter showed a PCWP of 25 and CVP of 15 with normal PVR and
in Fe deficiency anaemia transferrin/Total Iron Binding Capacity is increased, as total body
SVR. The TOE is likely to show:
stores of iron are low and the carrier molecule (transferrin) is being underutilised. Therefore
Transferrin SATURATION will be low also.
A. Early mitral inflow > inflow during atrial systole
B. Inferior wall hypokinesis
C. Severe MR A full size C oxygen cyclinder (size A in New Zealand) has pressure regulated from
D. TR and RV dilatation
E. LV cavity obliteration at the end of systole A. 16000kpa to 400kpa
ANSWER B B. 16000kpa to 240kpa
C. 11000kpa to 400kpa
D. 11000kpa to 240kpa
What is the test is decreased in Iron deficiency anaemia? E. 7600kpa to 240kpa
ANSWER A
A. microcytosis BOC website
B. serum ferritin
C. serum iron
D. transferrin MRI Telsa 3, least likely to cause harm
E. total iron binding capacity
ANSWER B A. Cochlear implant
, ANZCA MCQS Final Exam V2 (Latest 2026/ ANZCA MCQS Final Exam V2 (Latest 2026/
2027 Update) Guide| 100 out of 100 | Verified 2027 Update) Guide| 100 out of 100 | Verified
Questions & Answers | Grade A Questions & Answers | Grade A
B. mechanical heart valve A. anterior ischaemia
C. Implanted intrathecal pump B. atrial
D. Recently placed aortic stent C. inferior
E. shrapnel fragment D. lateral
ANSWER B E. septal
ANSWER A
not D as recently placed so not endotheliolised The central subclavicular (CS5) lead is particularly well suited for the detection of anterior
myocardial wall ischemia. The right arm (RA) electrode is placed under the right clavicle, the
left arm (LA) electrode is placed in the V5 position, and the left leg electrode is in its usual
position to serve as a ground.
What happens when you place a magnet over a biventricular internal cardiac defibrillator Lead I is selected for detection of anterior wall ischemia, and
lead II can be selected for monitoring inferior wall ischemia or for the detection of arrhythmias.
If a unipolar precordial electrode is unavailable, this CS5 bipolar lead is the best and easiest
A. Switch to asynchronous pacing
alternative to a true V5 lead for monitoring myocardial ischemia.
B. Damage the internal programming
C. Nothing
Thys DM, Kaplan JA: The ECG in Anesthesia and Critical Care. New York, Churchill
D. Switch off antitachycardia function Livingstone, 1987.
E. Switch of rate responsiveness
ANSWER D
Lowest extension of thoracic paravertebral space
but retains PPM functions.
depends on the device A. t10
B. t12
C. l2
Electrocardiogram in the Cs5 configuration. What are you looking at when monitoring lead I. D. l4
E. s1
, ANZCA MCQS Final Exam V2 (Latest 2026/ ANZCA MCQS Final Exam V2 (Latest 2026/
2027 Update) Guide| 100 out of 100 | Verified 2027 Update) Guide| 100 out of 100 | Verified
Questions & Answers | Grade A Questions & Answers | Grade A
ANSWER B ANSWER E Valvular
Although accelerated coronary artery disease is NOT a feature (vasospastic lesions occur),
myocardial infarction is a greater risk than in the general population. (UTD)
20 yr old male presents to ED with 30% burns from a fire. His approx weight is 80kg. Based on
the Parkland formula, how much fluid is required in the first 8hrs from time of injury?
A. 2.4L N/S The reason that desflurane requires a heated vapour chamber can be best explained by its:
B. 3.6L N/S
C. 3.6L Hartmann's A. Low saturated vapour pressure
D. 4.8L N/S B. High saturated vapour pressure
E. 4.8L CSL C. High boiling point
ANSWER E D. Low molecular weight
Parkland Formula E. Very low solubility
4 mL/kg x BSA burned ANSWER B
1/2 in first 8/24, remainder in next 16/24
A 30 year old lady has a vaginal forceps delivery without neuraxial blockade. The next day she is
noted to have loss of sensation over the anteriolateral aspect of her left thigh. There are NO
motor symptoms. The is best explained by damage to the left sided:
In regards to systemic sclerosis, what is the least likely cardiac manifestation?
A. Lumbosacral trunk
A. accelerated coronary artery disease
B. Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
B. atrioventricular conduction block
C. Pudendal nerve
C. myocarditis
D. L2/3 Nerve root
D. pericardial effusion
E. Sciatic nerve
E. valvular regurgitation