PEDS APEA FINAL EXAM PREP 2025/2026 ACCURATE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS<LATEST VERSION>

PEDS APEA FINAL EXAM PREP 2025/2026 ACCURATE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS&lt;LATEST VERSION&gt; 1. A six year old infant is found to have positive Barlow and or Ortolani maneuvers. What test should the NP order to assess and confirm developmental dysplasia of the hip? A. Frog leg x-rays B plain hip x-rays C ultrasound of the hip D CT of the hip - ANSWER ultrasound of the hip 2. The nurse practitioner sees a child who reports fatigue and presents with purpura on his lower extremities. This differential includes A anemia B abuse C acute leukemia D Kawasaki syndrome - ANSWER acute leukemia or hemochromatosis Schonlein purpura 3. When does a child's vision approximate 20/20? a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5-6 years - ANSWER d. 5-6 years 4. Conjunctivitis: a. produces blurred vision in the affected eye b. usually begins as a viral infection c. produces anterior cervical lymphadenopathy d. is common in patients who are nearsighted - ANSWER b. usually begins as a viral infection 5. Which reflex may be present at 9 months of age during sleep? a. Moro reflex b. Rooting c. Stepping d. Tonic neck - ANSWER b. Rooting 6. A child who is 15 months old is referred to as a(n): a. infant b. toddler c. preschooler d. youngster - ANSWER b. toddler 7. Which statement below is true of infants with developmental dysplasia of the hip? They usually have other orthopedic ailments. Most have some congenital orthopedic anomaly. There is often pain in the hip when the infant's diaper is changed. A palpable clunk is considered diagnostic. - ANSWER A palpable clunk is considered diagnostic Explanation: Several maneuvers may be attempted to elicit the dislocation. The physical exam techniques used to identify hip dislocation are Ortolani's and Barlow's maneuvers. Both attempt to dislocate or reduce the hip. There is a distinct "clunk" which can be felt by the examiner and sometimes heard as well. Each hip should be assessed individually and several times. 8. A child has 8-10 medium brown café au lait spots &gt; 1 cm in diameter. The differential diagnosis should include: vitiligo. eczema. neurofibromatosis. neuroblastoma. - ANSWER neurofibromatosis Explanation: Neurofibromatosis (NF) is a common neurocutaneous disorder. The most common form is von Recklinghausen's NF. Approximately 85% of patients with NF have this type. The incidence is about 1 in 2600 individuals. Children with this disorder have cognitive deficits, learning disabilities and other neurological related problems. They should be referred for diagnosis and treatment. 9. An infant is diagnosed with diaper dermatitis. Satellite lesions are visible. This should be treated with a: moisture barrier like zinc oxide. topical anti-fungal agent. topical anti-bacterial agent. low potency steroid cream. - ANSWER topical anti-fungal agent. Explanation: The finding of satellite lesions associated with diaper dermatitis indicates a Candidal infection. This patient will be most effectively treated with a topical anti-fungal agent, allowing the lesions to be exposed to air for periods of time (like during a nap). A moisture barrier like zinc oxide is more beneficial when the diaper dermatitis is due to irritants like prolonged exposure to urine or feces. A low potency steroid cream should be used with caution in an infant with a fungal infection. A low potency cream in conjunction with an anti-fungal can be helpful if there is a great amount of underlying inflammation but has the potential to worsen the infection 10. A 7 year-old male presents with encopresis. The NP might expect: constipation. delayed maturation. urinary tract infection. laxative abuse. - ANSWER constipation. 11. The first sign that a male child is experiencing sexual maturation is: increase in testicular size. enlargement of the scrotum. increase in length of the penis. scrotal and penile changes. - ANSWER increase in testicular size. Explanation: A male in Tanner Stage II will have an increase in testicular volume from 1.5 ml or less, to up to 6 ml. The skin on the scrotum will begin to thin, redden, and enlarge. The penile length will remain the same. 12. A 14 year-old patient has an acute, painless groin swelling. What tool would yield the most information to identify the etiology of the swelling? Abdominal radiographs Ultrasound of the abdomen Ultrasound of the scrotum MRI of the scrotum - ANSWER Ultrasound of the scrotum Explanation: The patient has an acute swelling of the groin. Since the etiology could include several scrotal problems (inguinal hernia, hydrocele, or varicocele), an ultrasound will yield quick reliable information with a diagnostic accuracy of 93% for acute groin problems. The definitive treatment for inguinal hernia is surgical repair. 13. A three year-old child presents with hematuria, petechiae, and a platelet count of 50,000 (Normal = 150,000-450,000/ml). The rest of his CBC is normal. He had an upper respiratory infection about 2 weeks ago. On exam today, he is found to have petechiae and bruises. The most likely diagnosis is: polycythemia vera. acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL). von Willebrand's disease. idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) - ANSWER idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) Explanation: This child's platelet count is below normal. The term used to describe this is thrombocytopenia. ITP is the most common type found in children between the ages of 2-4 years. Nosebleeds and bleeding gums, especially with brushing of teeth, are common. Generally, children are monitored closely for decreasing platelet counts and bleeding after ITP is identified, but this usually resolves in several weeks without treatment. The underlying cause is unknown, hence the name idiopathic. A common historical finding is an upper respiratory infection within the previous 4 weeks of the onset of ITP. 14. A 6 year-old being treated for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) has been taking azithromycin in therapeutic doses for 72 hours. His temperature has gone from 102F to 101F. What should be done? Continue the same dose and monitor his status Increase the dose to high dose azithromycin Change antibiotics to a penicillin This is probably viral, stop the antibiotic - ANSWER Change antibiotics to a penicillin Explanation: A 6 year-old with CAP should show improvement in symptoms in 24-48 hours if he is on appropriate antibiotic therapy. Azithromycin treats atypical pathogens like Mycoplasma and Chlamydia, but, has poor Strept coverage. The most likely pathogen in this age group that causes pneumonia is an atypical pathogen, but, at this point the most common typical pathogen, Strept pneumo, must be considered. The best choice is to consider Strept as the pathogen and treat with a penicillin. Specifically, this patient should receive high dose amoxicillin because of the increased incidence of resistant Strept pneumo. 15. full-term newborn is diagnosed with hyperbilirubinemia. When would his bilirubin level be expected to peak? 1-2 days 3-4 days 5-7 days 7-10 days - ANSWER 3-4 days Explanation: In full-term infants, the bilirubin level peaks at 3-4 days. In premature infants, the level peaks at 5-7 days. This is diagnosed when the bilirubin level exceeds 5 mg/dL. It occurs in more than 60% of full-term infants. 16. A 3 day-old infant weighed 8 pounds at birth. Today he weighs 7.5 pounds. How should this be managed? Assess the baby for a cardiac anomaly Add an extra feeding in the AM and PM Have the mother return to re-weigh the baby in 1 week Continue feeding every 2-4 hours - ANSWER Continue feeding every 2-4 hours Correct Explanation: Babies will lose about 10% of their birth weight in the first 3-4 days of life. This baby has lost about 8 ounces; this is about 10% of his birth weight. This is an appropriate weight loss in this time. He should rapidly gain this weight back. When children begin losing weight and growth slows, one consideration should be given to congenital cardiac anomalies. There is no need for the mother to return in one week to re-weigh this infant. The infant should be asked to return for his 2 month check. 17. A 6 month-old male has a palpable cystic mass in his scrotum. His mother states that sometimes the size of his scrotum seems larger than today during the exam. How should this be managed? Referral to urology as soon as possible Referral to urology if this has not resolved in 6 months Scrotal ultrasound should be ordered Order a urine specimen to rule out infection - ANSWER Referral to urology if this has not resolved in 6 months Explanation: This situation describes a hydrocele. It is very common in young males and usually resolves by a year of age. If it has not resolved by 12 months of age, the patient should be referred to urology. A cystic mass in the scrotum with a description of changing in size of the scrotum supports the finding of a communicating hydrocele. A scrotal ultrasound is not indicated at this time. 18. Epstein-Barr virus is responsible for: mononucleosis. the most common cause of pharyngitis. most teenage cases of pharyngitis. viral pharyngitis in young children. - ANSWER mononucleosis. Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). This commonly affects adolescents but can affect various age groups. The most prominent feature of mononucleosis is fever, fatigue and pharyngitis.