DENTAL HYGIENE PRACTICE
AUTHOR(S)MYERS, SANDRA; CURRAN,
ALICE
TEST BANK
1)
Reference
Ch. 1 — OVERVIEW OF ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL PATHOLOGY
Question Stem
A 52-year-old patient presents with a painless, firm intraoral
swelling on the posterior lateral tongue noticed gradually over 3
months. Which initial interpretation most appropriately reflects
a pathologic process rather than a reactive or developmental
variant?
Options
A. Lesion size increased progressively over months and is firm to
palpation.
B. Lesion is asymptomatic and was first noticed after a dental
extraction.
,C. Lesion moves freely with tongue motion and blanches under
pressure.
D. Lesion is bilaterally symmetrical and present since childhood.
Correct Answer
A
Rationales
• A (Correct): Progressive enlargement and firmness suggest
a neoplastic or infiltrative pathologic process rather than a
transient reactive lesion or stable variant.
• B: Onset after an extraction favors a reactive process like
traumatic granuloma or suture-related irritation, not
necessarily intrinsic pathology.
• C: Blanching and mobility typically indicate vascular or
mucocele-like lesions, less suggestive of an infiltrative solid
pathologic lesion.
• D: Longstanding, bilateral, childhood-present findings are
consistent with a developmental variant rather than a new
pathologic lesion.
Teaching Point
Progressive growth and firmness favor pathology over
developmental variants.
Citation
Myers, S., & Curran, A. (2023). General and Oral Pathology for
Dental Hygiene Practice (3rd Ed.). Ch. 1.
,2)
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Practice of Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology
Question Stem
A dental hygienist identifies an ulcerated lesion that fails to heal
after two weeks despite removal of local irritants. Which action
best aligns with the role of oral and maxillofacial pathology
practice?
Options
A. Reassess in another month and advise saltwater rinses.
B. Document and refer for biopsy and histopathologic
evaluation.
C. Prescribe systemic antibiotics empirically.
D. Diagnose as aphthous stomatitis and recommend topical
corticosteroid.
Correct Answer
B
Rationales
• B (Correct): Nonhealing ulcers require tissue diagnosis;
referral for biopsy and histologic analysis is appropriate
and aligns with pathologist practice.
, • A: Waiting further delays diagnosis of possible serious
disease; two weeks nonhealing already warrants
investigation.
• C: Empiric antibiotics are not indicated without signs of
infection and may obscure diagnosis.
• D: Aphthous ulcers typically resolve in 1–2 weeks;
persistence beyond that makes aphthous diagnosis unlikely
without further evaluation.
Teaching Point
Any intraoral ulcer persisting >2 weeks warrants biopsy referral.
Citation
Myers, S., & Curran, A. (2023). General and Oral Pathology for
Dental Hygiene Practice (3rd Ed.). Ch. 1.
3)
Reference
Ch. 1 — Assessment of Oral Pathologic Lesions
Question Stem
During an exam you find a 6 mm yellowish papule on the buccal
mucosa of a 30-year-old that the patient reports has been
present for years without change. Which aspect of lesion
assessment most strongly supports conservative management
rather than immediate biopsy?