1
Family Medicine Board Review Questions with Answers
(100% Correct Answers)
A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood
pressure. He has no additional chronic medical problems and is
otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood
pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable.
Laboratory Findings unremarkable
Urine microalbumin negative
According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart
Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the
most appropriate medication to initiate at this time?
A) Clonidine (Catapres), 0.1 mg twice daily
B) Hydralazine, 25 mg three times daily
C) Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic), 10/12.5 mg daily
D) Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), 25 mg twice daily
E) Triamterene (Dyrenium), 50 mg daily Answer: ANSWER: C
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,2
This patient has hypertension and according to both JNC 8 and
American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017
guidelines, antihypertensive treatment should be initiated. For the
general non-African-American population, monotherapy with an ACE
inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker,
or a thiazide diuretic would be appropriate for initial management. It
is also appropriate to initiate combination antihypertensive therapy as
an initial management strategy, although patients should not take an
ACE inhibitor and an angiotensin receptor blocker simultaneously.
Studies have shown that blood pressure control is achieved faster with
the initiation of combination therapy compared to monotherapy,
without an increase in morbidity. Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide
would be an appropriate choice in this patient. -Blockers, vasodilators,
-blockers, and potassium-sparing diuretics are not recommended as
initial choices for the treatment of hypertension.
During rounds at the nursing home, you are informed that there are
two residents on the unit with laboratory-confirmed influenza.
According to CDC guidelines, who should receive chemoprophylaxis
for influenza?
A) Only symptomatic residents on the same unit
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,3
B) Only symptomatic residents in the entire facility
C) All asymptomatic residents on the same unit
D) All residents of the facility regardless of symptoms
E) All staff regardless of symptoms Answer: ANSWER: C
In long-term care facilities, an influenza outbreak is defined as two
laboratory-confirmed cases of influenza
within 72 hours in patients on the same unit. The CDC recommends
chemoprophylaxis for all asymptomatic residents of the affected unit.
Any resident exhibiting symptoms of influenza should be treated for
influenza and not given chemoprophylaxis dosing. Chemoprophylaxis
is not recommended for residents of other units unless there are two
laboratory-confirmed cases in those units. Facility staff of the affected
unit can be considered for chemoprophylaxis if they have not been
vaccinated or if they had a recent vaccination, but chemoprophylaxis is
not recommended for all staff in the entire facility.
A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of mild to moderate
pelvic pain. She has had two male sex partners in the last 6 months
and uses oral contraceptives and sometimes condoms.
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, 4
A physical examination reveals a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F) and
moderate cervical motion and uterine tenderness. Urine hCG and a
urinalysis are negative. Vaginal microscopy shows only WBCs.
The initiation of antibiotics for treatment of pelvic inflammatory
disease in this patient
A) is appropriate at this time
B) requires an elevated temperature, WBC count, or C-reactive protein
level
C) should be based on the results of gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing
D) should be based on the results of pelvic ultrasonography Answer:
ANSWER: A
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a clinical diagnosis, and treatment
should be administered at the time of diagnosis and not delayed until
the results of the nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) for
gonorrhea and Chlamydia are returned. The clinical diagnosis is based
on an at-risk woman presenting with lower abdominal or pelvic pain,
accompanied by cervical motion, uterine, or adnexal tenderness that
can range from mild to severe. There is often a mucopurulent
© 2025 All rights reserved
Family Medicine Board Review Questions with Answers
(100% Correct Answers)
A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood
pressure. He has no additional chronic medical problems and is
otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood
pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable.
Laboratory Findings unremarkable
Urine microalbumin negative
According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart
Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the
most appropriate medication to initiate at this time?
A) Clonidine (Catapres), 0.1 mg twice daily
B) Hydralazine, 25 mg three times daily
C) Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic), 10/12.5 mg daily
D) Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), 25 mg twice daily
E) Triamterene (Dyrenium), 50 mg daily Answer: ANSWER: C
© 2025 All rights reserved
,2
This patient has hypertension and according to both JNC 8 and
American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017
guidelines, antihypertensive treatment should be initiated. For the
general non-African-American population, monotherapy with an ACE
inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker,
or a thiazide diuretic would be appropriate for initial management. It
is also appropriate to initiate combination antihypertensive therapy as
an initial management strategy, although patients should not take an
ACE inhibitor and an angiotensin receptor blocker simultaneously.
Studies have shown that blood pressure control is achieved faster with
the initiation of combination therapy compared to monotherapy,
without an increase in morbidity. Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide
would be an appropriate choice in this patient. -Blockers, vasodilators,
-blockers, and potassium-sparing diuretics are not recommended as
initial choices for the treatment of hypertension.
During rounds at the nursing home, you are informed that there are
two residents on the unit with laboratory-confirmed influenza.
According to CDC guidelines, who should receive chemoprophylaxis
for influenza?
A) Only symptomatic residents on the same unit
© 2025 All rights reserved
,3
B) Only symptomatic residents in the entire facility
C) All asymptomatic residents on the same unit
D) All residents of the facility regardless of symptoms
E) All staff regardless of symptoms Answer: ANSWER: C
In long-term care facilities, an influenza outbreak is defined as two
laboratory-confirmed cases of influenza
within 72 hours in patients on the same unit. The CDC recommends
chemoprophylaxis for all asymptomatic residents of the affected unit.
Any resident exhibiting symptoms of influenza should be treated for
influenza and not given chemoprophylaxis dosing. Chemoprophylaxis
is not recommended for residents of other units unless there are two
laboratory-confirmed cases in those units. Facility staff of the affected
unit can be considered for chemoprophylaxis if they have not been
vaccinated or if they had a recent vaccination, but chemoprophylaxis is
not recommended for all staff in the entire facility.
A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of mild to moderate
pelvic pain. She has had two male sex partners in the last 6 months
and uses oral contraceptives and sometimes condoms.
© 2025 All rights reserved
, 4
A physical examination reveals a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F) and
moderate cervical motion and uterine tenderness. Urine hCG and a
urinalysis are negative. Vaginal microscopy shows only WBCs.
The initiation of antibiotics for treatment of pelvic inflammatory
disease in this patient
A) is appropriate at this time
B) requires an elevated temperature, WBC count, or C-reactive protein
level
C) should be based on the results of gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing
D) should be based on the results of pelvic ultrasonography Answer:
ANSWER: A
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a clinical diagnosis, and treatment
should be administered at the time of diagnosis and not delayed until
the results of the nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) for
gonorrhea and Chlamydia are returned. The clinical diagnosis is based
on an at-risk woman presenting with lower abdominal or pelvic pain,
accompanied by cervical motion, uterine, or adnexal tenderness that
can range from mild to severe. There is often a mucopurulent
© 2025 All rights reserved
