FNP Practice Questions 2026 | Free NP
Board Review Q&A | Nurse Prep
Description:
Ace your Family Nurse Practitioner certification exams with our definitive 2026 practice test.
This comprehensive resource features 200 unique practice questions meticulously aligned with
the latest AANP and ANCC blueprints.
Inside, you'll find:
Realistic clinical scenarios that mirror the difficulty and format of the actual FNP board exam.
Detailed answer rationales that explain the why behind each correct and incorrect answer,
strengthening your critical thinking.
Updated 2026 guidelines covering essential topics from cardiology, pharmacology, and
pediatrics to women's health and geriatrics.
Confidence-building preparation designed to identify knowledge gaps and boost your test-
taking speed and accuracy.
Stop searching for scattered resources. Download your free, all-in-one FNP review guide now and
walk into your exam with confidence!
, 2026 FNP Board Review: 200 Practice Questions & Answers
1. A 72-year-old woman with a long-standing history of Stage II hypertension controlled with
hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg presents with a blood pressure of 168/96. She reports increased
pain in her right hip and both knees and has consequently raised her ibuprofen dose from 400 mg
TID to 800 mg TID. She requests a stronger analgesic. What is the most accurate description of
ibuprofen's effect on her hypertension management?
A) It increases the risk of general adverse health effects.
B) It reduces renal prostaglandin effects, diminishing the diuretic's efficacy.
C) It extends the therapeutic action of hydrochlorothiazide.
D) None of the statements are accurate.
Answer: B) It reduces renal prostaglandin effects, diminishing the diuretic's efficacy.
Explanation: NSAIDs like ibuprofen inhibit the synthesis of renal prostaglandins, which are
vasodilators. This inhibition can reduce renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate,
counteracting the intended effects of diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide and potentially leading to
fluid retention and elevated blood pressure.
2. Which infection primarily affects the cervix and upper reproductive tract rather than the labia
and vagina?
A) Bacterial Vaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
Answer: D) Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation: While bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis, and trichomoniasis are common infections
of the vagina and vulva, Chlamydia trachomatis typically infects the columnar epithelium of the
cervix, potentially ascending to cause endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease.
3. A nurse practitioner tests the obturator and iliopsoas muscles to evaluate for which condition?
A) Cholecystitis
B) Acute Appendicitis
, C) Inguinal Hernia
D) Gastric Ulcer
Answer: B) Acute Appendicitis
Explanation: The obturator and psoas signs are physical exam maneuvers used to assess for an
inflamed appendix. Pain with internal rotation of the flexed hip (obturator sign) or with passive
extension of the right thigh (psoas sign) can suggest irritation of the respective muscles by an
inflamed appendix.
4. Management of mild preeclampsia includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Bed rest with bathroom privileges
B) Close monitoring of weight and blood pressure
C) Serial assessment of urinary protein, serum creatinine, and platelet count
D) Immediate prescription of methyldopa for blood pressure control
Answer: D) Immediate prescription of methyldopa for blood pressure control
Explanation: First-line management for mild preeclampsia focuses on close maternal and fetal
monitoring. Antihypertensive medication is not typically initiated unless blood pressures become
severely elevated (e.g., ≥160/110 mmHg) to avoid compromising uteroplacental blood flow.
5. Which of the following services is NOT covered under Medicare Part A?
A) Inpatient hospitalizations
B) Medications administered during a hospital stay
C) Long-term custodial nursing home care
D) Surgeons' fees for inpatient procedures
Answer: C) Long-term custodial nursing home care
Explanation: Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital care, skilled nursing facility care (for a
limited time following a hospitalization), hospice, and some home health care. It does not cover
long-term custodial care, which involves assistance with activities of daily living.
, 6. A 28-year-old student presents with a hacking cough, small amounts of sputum, rhinorrhea, and
a low-grade fever. Physical exam reveals fine crackles at the lung bases. A chest x-ray shows
diffuse infiltrates in the right lower lobe. The white blood cell count is 10,500/uL. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Streptococcal pneumonia
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) Acute bronchitis
D) Legionnaires' disease
Answer: B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
Explanation: Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia
in young, healthy adults. It often presents with a gradual onset of constitutional symptoms, a
persistent cough, and patchy infiltrates on chest x-ray, frequently with a normal or only mildly
elevated white blood cell count.
7. A 39-year-old migrant worker has a PPD test placed. What minimum induration size is
considered positive for this individual 48-72 hours later?
A) 3 mm
B) 5 mm
C) 10 mm
D) 15 mm
Answer: C) 10 mm
Explanation: According to CDC guidelines, an induration of 10 mm or greater is considered a
positive PPD result in individuals with an increased risk of TB, such as recent immigrants from
high-prevalence countries, healthcare workers, and residents of congregate settings.
8. All of the following are correct regarding a Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare (DPOA-
HC) EXCEPT:
A) The agent's healthcare decisions are legally binding.
B) The agent's authority can extend to financial matters if specified.
C) The agent can make decisions about withdrawing life support if the patient lacks capacity.
D) The patient's spouse can legally override the agent's decisions.
Board Review Q&A | Nurse Prep
Description:
Ace your Family Nurse Practitioner certification exams with our definitive 2026 practice test.
This comprehensive resource features 200 unique practice questions meticulously aligned with
the latest AANP and ANCC blueprints.
Inside, you'll find:
Realistic clinical scenarios that mirror the difficulty and format of the actual FNP board exam.
Detailed answer rationales that explain the why behind each correct and incorrect answer,
strengthening your critical thinking.
Updated 2026 guidelines covering essential topics from cardiology, pharmacology, and
pediatrics to women's health and geriatrics.
Confidence-building preparation designed to identify knowledge gaps and boost your test-
taking speed and accuracy.
Stop searching for scattered resources. Download your free, all-in-one FNP review guide now and
walk into your exam with confidence!
, 2026 FNP Board Review: 200 Practice Questions & Answers
1. A 72-year-old woman with a long-standing history of Stage II hypertension controlled with
hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg presents with a blood pressure of 168/96. She reports increased
pain in her right hip and both knees and has consequently raised her ibuprofen dose from 400 mg
TID to 800 mg TID. She requests a stronger analgesic. What is the most accurate description of
ibuprofen's effect on her hypertension management?
A) It increases the risk of general adverse health effects.
B) It reduces renal prostaglandin effects, diminishing the diuretic's efficacy.
C) It extends the therapeutic action of hydrochlorothiazide.
D) None of the statements are accurate.
Answer: B) It reduces renal prostaglandin effects, diminishing the diuretic's efficacy.
Explanation: NSAIDs like ibuprofen inhibit the synthesis of renal prostaglandins, which are
vasodilators. This inhibition can reduce renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate,
counteracting the intended effects of diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide and potentially leading to
fluid retention and elevated blood pressure.
2. Which infection primarily affects the cervix and upper reproductive tract rather than the labia
and vagina?
A) Bacterial Vaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
Answer: D) Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation: While bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis, and trichomoniasis are common infections
of the vagina and vulva, Chlamydia trachomatis typically infects the columnar epithelium of the
cervix, potentially ascending to cause endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease.
3. A nurse practitioner tests the obturator and iliopsoas muscles to evaluate for which condition?
A) Cholecystitis
B) Acute Appendicitis
, C) Inguinal Hernia
D) Gastric Ulcer
Answer: B) Acute Appendicitis
Explanation: The obturator and psoas signs are physical exam maneuvers used to assess for an
inflamed appendix. Pain with internal rotation of the flexed hip (obturator sign) or with passive
extension of the right thigh (psoas sign) can suggest irritation of the respective muscles by an
inflamed appendix.
4. Management of mild preeclampsia includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Bed rest with bathroom privileges
B) Close monitoring of weight and blood pressure
C) Serial assessment of urinary protein, serum creatinine, and platelet count
D) Immediate prescription of methyldopa for blood pressure control
Answer: D) Immediate prescription of methyldopa for blood pressure control
Explanation: First-line management for mild preeclampsia focuses on close maternal and fetal
monitoring. Antihypertensive medication is not typically initiated unless blood pressures become
severely elevated (e.g., ≥160/110 mmHg) to avoid compromising uteroplacental blood flow.
5. Which of the following services is NOT covered under Medicare Part A?
A) Inpatient hospitalizations
B) Medications administered during a hospital stay
C) Long-term custodial nursing home care
D) Surgeons' fees for inpatient procedures
Answer: C) Long-term custodial nursing home care
Explanation: Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital care, skilled nursing facility care (for a
limited time following a hospitalization), hospice, and some home health care. It does not cover
long-term custodial care, which involves assistance with activities of daily living.
, 6. A 28-year-old student presents with a hacking cough, small amounts of sputum, rhinorrhea, and
a low-grade fever. Physical exam reveals fine crackles at the lung bases. A chest x-ray shows
diffuse infiltrates in the right lower lobe. The white blood cell count is 10,500/uL. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Streptococcal pneumonia
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) Acute bronchitis
D) Legionnaires' disease
Answer: B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
Explanation: Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia
in young, healthy adults. It often presents with a gradual onset of constitutional symptoms, a
persistent cough, and patchy infiltrates on chest x-ray, frequently with a normal or only mildly
elevated white blood cell count.
7. A 39-year-old migrant worker has a PPD test placed. What minimum induration size is
considered positive for this individual 48-72 hours later?
A) 3 mm
B) 5 mm
C) 10 mm
D) 15 mm
Answer: C) 10 mm
Explanation: According to CDC guidelines, an induration of 10 mm or greater is considered a
positive PPD result in individuals with an increased risk of TB, such as recent immigrants from
high-prevalence countries, healthcare workers, and residents of congregate settings.
8. All of the following are correct regarding a Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare (DPOA-
HC) EXCEPT:
A) The agent's healthcare decisions are legally binding.
B) The agent's authority can extend to financial matters if specified.
C) The agent can make decisions about withdrawing life support if the patient lacks capacity.
D) The patient's spouse can legally override the agent's decisions.
