FDNY EMS FINAL EXAM PART 1 STUDY GUIDE
2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED
PASS <RECENT VERSION>
Patient Assessment & Medical Emergencies
1. What is the first step in the primary assessment of any patient?
A) Checking for a medical alert tag
B) Obtaining a full set of vital signs
C) Forming a general impression of the patient
D) Ensuring an open airway
C) Forming a general impression of the patient - This is the "across-the-room" observation
that helps you determine if the patient is sick or not sick, which guides the urgency of your care.
2. A patient with a "pillow" of edema in the sacral area is most likely suffering from:
A) Pulmonary Edema
B) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Renal Failure
B) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) - Sacral edema is a classic sign of right-sided heart failure,
where fluid pools in dependent areas, especially in patients who are bedridden.
3. The "E" in the AVPU scale stands for:
A) Emergency
B) Eyes
C) Elevated
D) Escalating
B) Eyes - AVPU stands for Alert, responds to Verbal stimuli, responds to Painful stimuli, and
Unresponsive.
4. A patient experiencing a severe anaphylactic reaction will likely present with:
A) Bradycardia and Hypertension
B) Tachycardia and Hypertension
C) Bradycardia and Hypotension
D) Tachycardia and Hypotension
, D) Tachycardia and Hypotension - Widespread vasodilation and capillary leak caused by
anaphylaxis lead to low blood pressure (hypotension), and the body compensates with a fast
heart rate (tachycardia).
5. The classic triad of symptoms for a diabetic emergency with Hyperglycemia (Diabetic
Ketoacidosis) includes all EXCEPT:
A) Polyuria (excessive urination)
B) Polyphagia (excessive hunger)
C) Polydipsia (excessive thirst)
D) Polyarthritis (joint pain)
D) Polyarthritis (joint pain) - The three "Polys" of hyperglycemia are Polyuria, Polydipsia,
and Polyphagia.
6. A patient with a blood glucose level of 35 mg/dL would most likely be treated with:
A) Insulin
B) Oral Glucose
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Albuterol
B) Oral Glucose - A blood glucose of 35 mg/dL is severely hypoglycemic (low blood sugar).
Oral glucose is the standard pre-hospital treatment for a conscious, alert patient with a gag
reflex.
7. The primary difference between a TIA (Transient Ischemic Attack) and a CVA
(Cerebrovascular Accident) is:
A) The severity of the headache
B) The presence of paralysis
C) The resolution of symptoms within 24 hours
D) The patient's age
C) The resolution of symptoms within 24 hours - A TIA is a "mini-stroke" where symptoms
resolve completely, typically within an hour, and always within 24 hours. A CVA involves
permanent brain damage.
8. When assessing a patient with suspected opioid overdose, the most pertinent negative
finding would be:
A) Constricted (pinpoint) pupils
B) Bradypnea or apnea
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperactivity
, D) Hyperactivity - Opioid overdose causes CNS depression, leading to sedation, not
hyperactivity. Pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression are hallmark signs.
9. A patient with pleuritic chest pain is characterized by pain that:
A) Is relieved by lying down
B) Is worsened by inspiration or coughing
C) Radiates to the left arm
D) Is described as "crushing"
B) Is worsened by inspiration or coughing - Pleuritic pain arises from irritation of the pleura
(lung lining), which is aggravated by the movement of breathing.
10. The recommended position for a patient in shock, assuming no spinal injury, is:
A) Trendelenburg (head lower than feet)
B) High-Fowler's (sitting upright)
C) Supine (flat on back)
D) Recovery (lateral recumbent)
C) Supine (flat on back) - The supine position is standard for shock to maximize blood return
to the core. The Trendelenburg position is no longer widely recommended as it can impair
breathing.
Trauma & Bleeding
11. The "Golden Hour" in trauma care refers to:
A) The time it takes to get to the hospital
B) The critical first hour after injury for definitive care
C) The time limit for a tourniquet to be applied
D) The duration of a primary assessment
B) The critical first hour after injury for definitive care - The concept is that a trauma
patient's best chance for survival is to receive surgical or other definitive care within the first
hour after injury.
12. A tension pneumothorax is best identified by:
A) Diminished breath sounds on the affected side
B) Tracheal deviation away from the affected side
C) JVD (Jugular Vein Distention)
D) All of the above
D) All of the above - The classic triad for a tension pneumothorax is respiratory distress,
diminished/unilateral breath sounds, and JVD. Tracheal deviation is a late and ominous sign.
2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED
PASS <RECENT VERSION>
Patient Assessment & Medical Emergencies
1. What is the first step in the primary assessment of any patient?
A) Checking for a medical alert tag
B) Obtaining a full set of vital signs
C) Forming a general impression of the patient
D) Ensuring an open airway
C) Forming a general impression of the patient - This is the "across-the-room" observation
that helps you determine if the patient is sick or not sick, which guides the urgency of your care.
2. A patient with a "pillow" of edema in the sacral area is most likely suffering from:
A) Pulmonary Edema
B) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Renal Failure
B) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) - Sacral edema is a classic sign of right-sided heart failure,
where fluid pools in dependent areas, especially in patients who are bedridden.
3. The "E" in the AVPU scale stands for:
A) Emergency
B) Eyes
C) Elevated
D) Escalating
B) Eyes - AVPU stands for Alert, responds to Verbal stimuli, responds to Painful stimuli, and
Unresponsive.
4. A patient experiencing a severe anaphylactic reaction will likely present with:
A) Bradycardia and Hypertension
B) Tachycardia and Hypertension
C) Bradycardia and Hypotension
D) Tachycardia and Hypotension
, D) Tachycardia and Hypotension - Widespread vasodilation and capillary leak caused by
anaphylaxis lead to low blood pressure (hypotension), and the body compensates with a fast
heart rate (tachycardia).
5. The classic triad of symptoms for a diabetic emergency with Hyperglycemia (Diabetic
Ketoacidosis) includes all EXCEPT:
A) Polyuria (excessive urination)
B) Polyphagia (excessive hunger)
C) Polydipsia (excessive thirst)
D) Polyarthritis (joint pain)
D) Polyarthritis (joint pain) - The three "Polys" of hyperglycemia are Polyuria, Polydipsia,
and Polyphagia.
6. A patient with a blood glucose level of 35 mg/dL would most likely be treated with:
A) Insulin
B) Oral Glucose
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Albuterol
B) Oral Glucose - A blood glucose of 35 mg/dL is severely hypoglycemic (low blood sugar).
Oral glucose is the standard pre-hospital treatment for a conscious, alert patient with a gag
reflex.
7. The primary difference between a TIA (Transient Ischemic Attack) and a CVA
(Cerebrovascular Accident) is:
A) The severity of the headache
B) The presence of paralysis
C) The resolution of symptoms within 24 hours
D) The patient's age
C) The resolution of symptoms within 24 hours - A TIA is a "mini-stroke" where symptoms
resolve completely, typically within an hour, and always within 24 hours. A CVA involves
permanent brain damage.
8. When assessing a patient with suspected opioid overdose, the most pertinent negative
finding would be:
A) Constricted (pinpoint) pupils
B) Bradypnea or apnea
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperactivity
, D) Hyperactivity - Opioid overdose causes CNS depression, leading to sedation, not
hyperactivity. Pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression are hallmark signs.
9. A patient with pleuritic chest pain is characterized by pain that:
A) Is relieved by lying down
B) Is worsened by inspiration or coughing
C) Radiates to the left arm
D) Is described as "crushing"
B) Is worsened by inspiration or coughing - Pleuritic pain arises from irritation of the pleura
(lung lining), which is aggravated by the movement of breathing.
10. The recommended position for a patient in shock, assuming no spinal injury, is:
A) Trendelenburg (head lower than feet)
B) High-Fowler's (sitting upright)
C) Supine (flat on back)
D) Recovery (lateral recumbent)
C) Supine (flat on back) - The supine position is standard for shock to maximize blood return
to the core. The Trendelenburg position is no longer widely recommended as it can impair
breathing.
Trauma & Bleeding
11. The "Golden Hour" in trauma care refers to:
A) The time it takes to get to the hospital
B) The critical first hour after injury for definitive care
C) The time limit for a tourniquet to be applied
D) The duration of a primary assessment
B) The critical first hour after injury for definitive care - The concept is that a trauma
patient's best chance for survival is to receive surgical or other definitive care within the first
hour after injury.
12. A tension pneumothorax is best identified by:
A) Diminished breath sounds on the affected side
B) Tracheal deviation away from the affected side
C) JVD (Jugular Vein Distention)
D) All of the above
D) All of the above - The classic triad for a tension pneumothorax is respiratory distress,
diminished/unilateral breath sounds, and JVD. Tracheal deviation is a late and ominous sign.
