MATERNAL & CHILD HEALTH NURSING: CARE OF
THE CHILDBEARING & CHILDREARING FAMILY, 8TH
EDITION QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A
| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A pregnant client at 12 weeks’ gestation asks when fetal
heart tones are usually detectable with a Doppler device.
The nurse’s best reply is:
A. 6–8 weeks
B. 8–10 weeks
C. 10–12 weeks
D. 14–16 weeks
Rationale: Fetal heart tones with a Doppler generally can
be heard by 10–12 weeks gestation.
2. Which factor most strongly increases the risk for
preeclampsia?
A. Advanced maternal age (>40)
B. First pregnancy (nulliparity)
C. Multiparity
D. Low BMI
Rationale: Nulliparity is a recognized risk factor for
preeclampsia.
,3. A woman in active labor requests an epidural. The nurse
should ensure which of the following before
administration?
A. Oral intake of clear fluids
B. Maternal platelet count and informed consent
C. Fetal scalp electrode placed
D. Episiotomy consent
Rationale: Platelet count is needed to reduce risk of spinal
hematoma and informed consent is required.
4. A nonstress test (NST) is reactive when:
A. There are no accelerations with fetal movement
B. There are late decelerations with contractions
C. There are two or more accelerations of 15 bpm lasting
15 seconds over 20 minutes
D. Baseline heart rate is >180 bpm
Rationale: A reactive NST requires ≥2 accelerations of at
least 15 bpm lasting 15 sec within 20 min (for term fetus).
5. The earliest biochemical marker of pregnancy is:
A. Estriol
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
C. Progesterone
D. Prolactin
Rationale: hCG is the earliest detectable hormone in
maternal serum/urine after conception.
,6. A client with gestational diabetes is learning diet control.
Which instruction is most appropriate?
A. Avoid all carbohydrates
B. Eat only two large meals per day
C. Distribute carbohydrates across meals and snacks
D. Increase fruit juice intake for energy
Rationale: Spreading carbohydrates prevents wide
glucose fluctuations and helps glycemic control.
7. The priority nursing intervention for a woman with
placental abruption is:
A. Start oral fluids
B. Continuous fetal monitoring and prepare for possible
immediate delivery
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Apply warm compresses to abdomen
Rationale: Abruptio placentae can cause fetal distress and
maternal hemorrhage; continuous monitoring and
delivery readiness are essential.
8. After administration of oxytocin for induction, the nurse
notes uterine tachysystole (excessive contractions). The
first action should be:
A. Give terbutaline immediately
B. Stop the oxytocin infusion
C. Increase oxytocin rate
, D. Encourage Valsalva breathing
Rationale: Stopping oxytocin removes the stimulus
causing tachysystole and reduces risk of fetal
compromise.
9. Which sign suggests uterine rupture during labor?
A. Progressive cervical dilation
B. Strong uterine contractions with good fetal tolerance
C. Sudden fetal bradycardia and loss of uterine contour
D. Decreased maternal heart rate
Rationale: Sudden fetal bradycardia and loss of uterine
tone/contour are classic for uterine rupture.
10. A newborn’s APGAR at 1 minute is 5. Which
intervention is indicated first?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Intramuscular vitamin K
C. Provide gentle stimulation and clear airway as needed
D. Give formula feed
Rationale: Immediate neonatal resuscitation priorities:
airway, breathing, circulation—stimulation and airway
clearance first.
11. Which postpartum finding is abnormal and requires
immediate attention?
A. Lochia rubra on day 2
B. Fundus firm at umbilicus level
THE CHILDBEARING & CHILDREARING FAMILY, 8TH
EDITION QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A
| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A pregnant client at 12 weeks’ gestation asks when fetal
heart tones are usually detectable with a Doppler device.
The nurse’s best reply is:
A. 6–8 weeks
B. 8–10 weeks
C. 10–12 weeks
D. 14–16 weeks
Rationale: Fetal heart tones with a Doppler generally can
be heard by 10–12 weeks gestation.
2. Which factor most strongly increases the risk for
preeclampsia?
A. Advanced maternal age (>40)
B. First pregnancy (nulliparity)
C. Multiparity
D. Low BMI
Rationale: Nulliparity is a recognized risk factor for
preeclampsia.
,3. A woman in active labor requests an epidural. The nurse
should ensure which of the following before
administration?
A. Oral intake of clear fluids
B. Maternal platelet count and informed consent
C. Fetal scalp electrode placed
D. Episiotomy consent
Rationale: Platelet count is needed to reduce risk of spinal
hematoma and informed consent is required.
4. A nonstress test (NST) is reactive when:
A. There are no accelerations with fetal movement
B. There are late decelerations with contractions
C. There are two or more accelerations of 15 bpm lasting
15 seconds over 20 minutes
D. Baseline heart rate is >180 bpm
Rationale: A reactive NST requires ≥2 accelerations of at
least 15 bpm lasting 15 sec within 20 min (for term fetus).
5. The earliest biochemical marker of pregnancy is:
A. Estriol
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
C. Progesterone
D. Prolactin
Rationale: hCG is the earliest detectable hormone in
maternal serum/urine after conception.
,6. A client with gestational diabetes is learning diet control.
Which instruction is most appropriate?
A. Avoid all carbohydrates
B. Eat only two large meals per day
C. Distribute carbohydrates across meals and snacks
D. Increase fruit juice intake for energy
Rationale: Spreading carbohydrates prevents wide
glucose fluctuations and helps glycemic control.
7. The priority nursing intervention for a woman with
placental abruption is:
A. Start oral fluids
B. Continuous fetal monitoring and prepare for possible
immediate delivery
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Apply warm compresses to abdomen
Rationale: Abruptio placentae can cause fetal distress and
maternal hemorrhage; continuous monitoring and
delivery readiness are essential.
8. After administration of oxytocin for induction, the nurse
notes uterine tachysystole (excessive contractions). The
first action should be:
A. Give terbutaline immediately
B. Stop the oxytocin infusion
C. Increase oxytocin rate
, D. Encourage Valsalva breathing
Rationale: Stopping oxytocin removes the stimulus
causing tachysystole and reduces risk of fetal
compromise.
9. Which sign suggests uterine rupture during labor?
A. Progressive cervical dilation
B. Strong uterine contractions with good fetal tolerance
C. Sudden fetal bradycardia and loss of uterine contour
D. Decreased maternal heart rate
Rationale: Sudden fetal bradycardia and loss of uterine
tone/contour are classic for uterine rupture.
10. A newborn’s APGAR at 1 minute is 5. Which
intervention is indicated first?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Intramuscular vitamin K
C. Provide gentle stimulation and clear airway as needed
D. Give formula feed
Rationale: Immediate neonatal resuscitation priorities:
airway, breathing, circulation—stimulation and airway
clearance first.
11. Which postpartum finding is abnormal and requires
immediate attention?
A. Lochia rubra on day 2
B. Fundus firm at umbilicus level
