NURSING 213 FINAL NEWEST 2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM WITH
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+| ||PROFESSOR
VERIFIED||
The nurse notes an isolated premature ventricular contraction
(PVC) on the cardiac monitor. Which action should the nurse
take?
A) Prepare for defibrillation
B) Continue to monitor the rhythm
C) Notify the HCP
D) Prepare to administer lidocaine hydrochloride - ANSWER-B)
Continue to monitor the rhythm
Rationale: As an isolated occurance, a PVC is not life threatening.
The nurse should continue to monitor the patients rhythm.
Frequent PVCs, however, maybe precursors of a more life-
threatening rhythm such as vtach or vfib.
A client was admitted to the hospital 24 hours ago after sustaining
blunt force trauma to the chest. Which earliest clinical
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manifestations of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
should the nurse monitor for?
A) Cyanosis and pallor
B) Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation
C) Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per minute
D) Haziness or "white out" appearance of lungs on chest X-ray -
ANSWER-C) Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths
per minute
Rationale: ARDS usually develops within 24-48 hrs after an
initiating event, such as chest trauma. In most cases tachypnea
and dyspnea are the earliest clinical manifestations as the body
compensates for mild hypoxemia through hyperventiliation.
Cyanosis and pallor are usually late signs of severe hypoxemia.
In ARDS lung sounds are initially clear but progress to crackles
and rhonchi as pulmonary edema occurs. Xrays will shouw a
"white out" appearance much later in the progression of ARDS.
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A client has developed atrial fibrillation and has a ventricular rate
of 150 beats per minute. The nurse should assess the client for
which effects of this cardiac occurrence?
A) flat neck veins
B) nausea and vomiting
C) hypotension and dizziness
D) hypertension and headache - ANSWER-C) hypotension and
dizziness
The home care nurse is making a follow-up visit to a client after a
renal transplant. The nurse should assess the client for which
manifestations of acute graft rejection?
A) hypotension, graft tenderness, and anemia
B) hypertension, oliguria, thirst, and hypothermia
C) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise
D) fever, vomiting, hypotension, and copious amounts of dilute
urine output - ANSWER-C) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness,
and malaise
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A client with a burn injury recieves a prescription for a regular diet.
Which is the best meal for the nurse to provide to the client to
promote wound healing?
A) peanut butter & jelly sandwich, apple, tea
B) chicken breast, broccoli, strawberries, milk
C) veal chop, boiled potatoes, jell-o, orange juice
D) pasta with tomato sauce, garlic bread, ginger ale - ANSWER-
B) chicken breast, broccoli, strawberries, milk
Rationale: the meal with the best potential to promote wound
healing includes nutrient-rich food choices including protein, such
as chicken and milk, and vitamin c, such as strawberries and
broccoli. The remaining food options include one or more items
with low nutritional value, especially the jell-o, tea, jelly, and
ginger ale.
An adult client arrives in the emergency department with burns to
both entire legs and the perineal area. Using the rule of nines, the