NURS 617 Pharm Exam 2 LATEST 2025 (Jean Genzale) COMPLETE QUESTION AND ANSWER 100% COMPLETE SOLUTIONS

c. It commonly produces flushing in the face and neck area NURS 617 Pharm Exam 2 LATEST 2025 (Jean Genzale) COMPLETE QUESTION AND ANSWER 100% COMPLETE SOLUTIONS NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice NURS 617 Pharm Exam 2 LATEST 2025 (Jean Genzale) COMPLETE QUESTION AND ANSWER 100% A pediatric patient who weighs 30lbs is prescribed Prednisolone 1.5mg / kg / day as a " burst therapy " for asthma exacerbation. Please calculate a dose in whole number of mg for a total daily dose of Prednisolone 20 All of the following therapies are used as acute therapy for a cluster headache except a. Intranasal lidocaine b. Intranasal sumatriptan ( imitrex ) c. Ergotamine derivative d. Verapamil d. Verapamil A disadvantage to the use of nicotinic acid ( niacin ) for hyperlipidemia is ? a. It is associated with constipation b. it may cause a life - threatening myopathyd. It will decrease the absorption of other oral drugs given simultaneously c. It commonly produces flushing in the face and neck aread. tachycardia C. increase the time that the heart is in diastole NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice All of the following respiratory agents are safe to use in pregnancy except a. brompheniramine ( dimetane ) b. potassium iodide c. hydrocortisone d. dextromethorphan ( Delsym ) b. potassium iodide antihistamines have antagonistic activity on cholinergic receptors leading to anticholinergic adverse effects. Examples of anticholinergic adverse effects include a. bronchospasm b. nasal stuffiness c. pruritus d. tachycardia beta blockers are used therapeutically in patients with angina a. decrease the time allowed for coronary blood flow b. increase cardiac output d. increase myocardial oxygen consumption C. increase the time that the heart is in diastoleb. Beta 2 adrenergic agents Angiotensin II receptor antagonists ( ARBS ) a. May be prescribed to pregnant women without fear of causing fetal harm b. Are excreted both in the urine and the bile C.Have limited use due to multiple adverse effects d. Commonly cause a persistent cough as an adverse drug reaction b. Are excreted both in the urine and the bile NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice although most asthmatics are controlled with a combination of medications , the class that provides the most effective bronchodilation is ? a. Anticholinergic inhalants C. Cromones d. Methylxanthines b. Beta 2 adrenergic agents According to the textbook , preferred step 4 treatment for persistent asthma in 12 y / o children and adults is a. Cromolyn b. Low dose ICS C. Medium dose ICS d. Medium dose ICS + LABA d. Medium dose ICS + LABANURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Although most antiemetics also produce sedation , which of the following is the least likely to have this effect a. Dronabinol ( marinol ) ) C. Promethazine ( Phenergan ) d. Trimethobenzamide ( Tigan ) b. Ondansetron ( zofran ) Beta blockers must be used with caution in patients who have heart failure. Which of the following statements describe possible consequences of slowing the heart rate in a patient with HF ? a. May increase perfusion of coronary arteries b. May increase cardiac contractility C. May increase myocardial oxygen supply d. May decrease cardiac output to a critical level d. May decrease cardiac output to a critical level Bile acid sequestrants a. Are all considered pregnancy category D b. Are activated from a prodrug to an active form in the liver c. Reduce the amount of cholesterol stored in adipose tissue b. Ondansetron ( zofranc. Azithromycin ( Zithromax ) NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice d. Require close monitoring of hepatic function c. Reduce the amount of cholesterol stored in adipose tissue Chlamydial pneumonia should be treated with the following suggested antimicrobial ? a. Amoxicillin ( Amoxil ) b. Amoxicillin - clavulanate ( Augmentin ) d. Ceftriaxone ( rocephin ) c. Azithromycin ( Zithromax ) Calcium channel blockers a. Block calcium channels inayocardial cells resulting in decreased myocardial contraction b. Cause increased heart rate by speeding conductance of electrical cells C. Decrease calcium movement into the extracellular environment d. Have negative effects on glucose levels in diabetic patients a. Block calcium channels inayocardial cells resulting in decreased myocardial contraction Centrally acting alpha II adrenergic agents a. Interact with alpha II receptors on the peripheral vascular system b . Increases venous return ; thereby decreasing heart rate C. Result in a mild to moderate increase in cardiac outputb. Increases the force of myocardial contraction c. Can be useful in the treatment of hypertensive crisis a. Bisacodyl ( doculax ) NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice d. Result in vasodilation leading to a decrease in blood pressure b. Increases venous return ; thereby decreasing heart rate Dobutamine in the treatment of acute CHF a. Can be given sublingually C. Reduces systemic vascular resistance and decreases afterload d. Works as a beta agonist and an alpha agonist b. Increases the force of myocardial contraction Direct acting vasodilators a. Are teratogenic b. Block the action of aldosterone d. Often cause impotence in men c. Can be useful in the treatment of hypertensive crisis Electrolyte depletion is most likely to occur with which of the following laxatives b. Mineral oil c. Psyllium ( Metamucil )d. Spironolactone ( Aldactone ) Inhalational formations of a drug are absorbed very quickly because a There are no natural defenses against inhaled particles b. Of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar capillary membranes C. There is a small alveolar membrane surface area d. They will be absorbed equally from both the lungs and the digestive tract b. Of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar capillary membranes d. Spironolactone ( Aldactone ) NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice d. Sodium docusate ( Colace ) a. Bisacodyl ( doculax ) Hyperkalemia is a side effect of which of the following drugs a. Chlorthalidone ( Hgroton ) b. Furosemide ( Lasix ) c. Hydrochlorothiazide ( Hydrodiuril ) Many classes can be used for migraine prophylaxis. Which of the following classes of drugs has an FDA indication for preventive use with migraines a. Beta blockers b. MAOISc. Commonly result in mildly increased anxiety. d. Often precipitate bronchospasm in patients with asthma even in low doses a. Are safer to use in diabetic patients than nonselective beta blockers In treating patients with heart failure , which statement about digoxin is true a. It has been shown to increase survival b. It has a high therapeutic index c. It reduces symptoms associated with atrial fibrillation d. It should not be given to patients with liver disease a. Are safer to use in diabetic patients than nonselective beta blockers NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice C. SSRIS d. Tricyclic antidepressants a. Beta blockers Selective Beta 1 blockers b. Can cause improvement in the triglyceride and HDL levels c. It reduces symptoms associated with atrial fibrillation In patients with chronic CHF , which drug class has been shown to increase life expectancy a. ACE inhibitors b. Cardiac glycosidesa. Azithromycin ( Zithromax ) NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice c. Loop diuretics d. Thiazine diuretics a. ACE inhibitors For a pregnant patient diagnosed with CAP , the drug of choice is b. Clarithromycin ( Biaxin ) c. Doxycycline d. Levofloxacin ( Levaquin ) a. Azithromycin ( Zithromax ) For treatment of ear infections with an antibacterial product , which one is CONTRAINDICATED if the tympanic membrane is perforated a. Cortisporin Otic Solution b. Cortisporin Otic Suspension c. Ciprofloxacin- dexamethasone ( ciprodex ) d. Ofloxacin ( Floxin ) Otic a. Cortisporin Otic Solution Sprinonolactone ( Aldactone ) is often used in combination with the thiazide diuretics because a. The antihypertensive efficacy is increased when the renin - angiotensin - aldosterone mechanism is activateda. Inhaled corticosteroids NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice b. The combination improves compliance in long term hypertensive therapy c. The potassium sparing diuretic offsets the potential for hypokalemia often seen with the thiazides d. The potential risk of reflex tachycardia is reduced c. The potassium sparing diuretic offsets the potential for hypokalemia often seen with the thiazides The cornerstone of moderate persistent asthma drug therapy is the use of b. Mast cell stabilizers C. Oral theophylline d. Short acting beta agonist a. Inhaled corticosteroids In the elderly population , which H2 receptor antagonist is considered safest ? a. Cimetidine ( Tagamet ) b. Famotidine ( Pepcid ) C. Nizatadine ( Axid ) d. Ranitidine ( Zantac b. Famotidine ( Pepcid )c. Nephrolithiasis b. Leukotriene receptor antagonists NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Long term use of antacids can lead to serum electrolyte and mineral imbalances which may cause adverse effects such as a. Dysgeusia b. Hypotension d. Polyuria c. Nephrolithiasis The drug of choice in pneumonia for a previously healthy individual and no comorbidities a. Amoxicillin ( high dose ) b. Amoxicillin- clavulanate ( Augmentin ) c. Macrolide ( Azithromycin ) d. Respiratory fluoroquinolone ( Levofloxacin c. Macrolide ( Azithromycin ) Which of the following therapies have NOT been shown to be of any value in COPD a. Antibiotics C. Muscarinic agents d. Oxygen b. Leukotriene receptor antagonistsC. Pantoprazole ( Protonix ) d. Terbutaline ( brethine) b. Isoniazid ( INH ) NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Which of the following PPIs is not FDA approved for use in children. a. Esomeprazole ( Nexium ) b. Lansoprazole ( prevacid ) d. Rabeprazole ( Achiphex ) C. Pantoprazole ( Protonix ) Which of the following drugs commonly indicated for asthma and COPD should be used cautiously in women in their 3 trimester a. Albuterol ( Ventolin ) b. Formoterol ( foradil ) C. Salmeterol ( Serevent ) d. Terbutaline ( brethine) Which of the following antimycobacterial drugs can be used prophylactically and therapeutically for TB a. Ethambutol ( myambutol ) c. Pyrazinadamine ( PZA ) d. Streptomycin b. Isoniazid ( INH )drug effects. d. Metoclopramide may serve a dual purpose in relieving both disease symptoms and adverse NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Which statement is true about adjunctive therapy for migraine headaches a. Butalbital is safe to use during pregnancy B. It should be reserved for cases where serotonin agonists are ineffective c. Narcotic therapy should be limited to injectable to discourage self - administration d. Metoclopramide may serve a dual purpose in relieving both disease symptoms and adverse drug effects. Which of the following gastrointestinal agents can be used for both constipation and diarrhea a. Bulk forming agents b. Saline laxatives c. Stimulant agents d. Stool softeners a. Bulk forming agents Which of the following agents are responsible for increasing the LES tone a. Alcohol b. Calcium channel blockers. c. Metoclopramide d. Tobacco c. Metoclopramideb. Oxymetazoline ( Afrin ) NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Which of the following nasal decongestants is contraindicated in pregnancy a. Ephedrine c. Phenylephrin ( neo - synephrine ) d. Pseudoephedrine ( Sudafed ) b. Oxymetazoline ( Afrin ) Which of the following antiemetics has the following disadvantages : may cause diarrhea ; commonly produce EPS symptoms ; arrhythmias are possible ; and contraindicated in depression a. Droperidol ( Inapsine ) b. Metoclopramide ( Reglan ) C. Ondansetron ( Zofran ) d. Promethazine ( Phenergan ) b. Metoclopramide ( Reglan ) Which of the following drugs are indicated for susceptible infections of the conjunctiva and corneal ulcer a. Erythromycin ( Ilotycin ) b. Sulfacetamide ( Bleph - 10 ) C. Ciprofloxacin ( ciloxan )d. TMP - SMX ( Bactrim septra ) NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice d. Trifluridine ( Viroptic ) C. Ciprofloxacin ( ciloxan ) Which antimicrobial is the drug of choice for ADULTSS for prophylaxis or for recurrent UTIS a. Cephalexin ( Keflex ) b. Amoxicillin ( Amoxil ) c. Moxifloxacin ( avelox ) d. TMP - SMX ( Bactrim septra ) Which of the following side effects is experienced by patients taking verapamil a. Chest pain b. Constipation C. Diarrhea d. Nocturnal cough b. Constipation What patient education would you give when prescribing a nitrate for treatment of angina a. Nitrates should not be used for acute episodes of angina b. Nitrates commonly cause headaches with initial doses of the drug C. Take this medication with the first meal of the dayNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice d. Tolerance and physical dependence do not occur with continuous use of this medication b. Nitrates commonly cause headaches with initial doses of the drug Which of the following drugs commonly used to treat patients with headaches is considered safe in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters of pregnancy ? a. Erotamine ( Ergostat ) b. Ketorolac ( Toradol ) c. Ondansetron ( Zofran ) d. Almotriptan ( Axert ) c. Ondansetron ( Zofran ) Which lab test should be monitored to detect adverse drug reaction common with statins a. Glucose b. Liver function test C. Potassium d. White blood cells b. Liver function test Which drug results in pharmacological blockade of sodium and chloride co - transport at the distal convoluted tubule a. Bumetanide ( bumex ) b. Spironolactone ( Aldactone )d. All of the above NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice c. Chlorothiazide ( diuril ) d. Furosemide ( Lasix ) c. Chlorothiazide ( diuril ) Which of the following ophthalmic antimicrobials exerts its pharmacologic effect by inhibition of DNA gyrase a. Azithromycin ( azasite ) b. Ciprofloxacin ( ciloxan ) c. Tobramycin ( Tobrex ) d. Sulfacetamide ( sulamyd ) b. Ciprofloxacin ( ciloxan ) Which of the following is an advantage of scopolamine for motion sickness ? a. Available in many formulations - long duration of action with transdermal formulation ( 72 hours ) b. Less sedating than the antihistamine antiemetics c. Onset of action 30-60 minutes with oral and parenteral forms d. All of the above Which of the following agents use dot treat TB in pregnant women have demonstrated teratogenic effects on the fetusd. Streptomycin b. Beta blockers NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice a. Ethambutol b. Isoniazid C. Rifampin d. Streptomycin Which of the following agents are recommended for Step 2 treatment of persistent asthma ? SATA a. Anticholinergics b. Leukotriene reception antagonist c. Long acting beta agonist d. Low dose inhaled corticosteroid a. Anticholinergics b. Leukotriene reception antagonist Several categories of drugs are used for prophylaxis of migraines. Which ones are FDA approved ? a. Anticonvulsants c. Calcium channel blockers d. Tricyclic antidepressants a. Anticonvulsants b. Beta blockersa. Imipramine ( Tofranil ) c. Sertraline ( Zoloft ) a. Insomnia d. Seizures NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Which of the following antidepressants are indicated to be administered to children as young as 6 years of age ? SATA b. Paroxetine ( Paxil ) d. Tranylcypromine ( Parnate ) a. Imipramine ( Tofranil ) c. Sertraline ( Zoloft ) Ethanol withdrawal symptoms include ? SATA b. Hypotension c. Hypothermia a. Insomnia d. Seizures Theophylline serum levels are increased in which of the following ? a. Cigarette smokers b. Congestive heart failure c. Neonates and older adultsb. Leukotrienes a. Benzonatate ( Tessalon ) NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice d. Concomitant use of oral contraceptives b. Congestive heart failure c. Neonates and older adults d. Concomitant use of oral contraceptives Treatment of patients with COPD includes any of the following EXCEPT ? a. Beta agonists c. Methylxanthine d. Muscarinic agents anticholinergics b. Leukotrienes Which of the following antitussives has the disadvantage of hypersensitivity manifested by bronchospasm ? b. Codeine c. Dextromethorphan d. Diphenhydramine ( Benadryl ) a. Benzonatate ( Tessalon ) Which if yhe following H2 blockers in commonly associated with gynecomastia?NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice a. Cimetidine ( Tagamet ) b. Famotidine ( Pepcid ) c. Nizatidine ( Axid ) d. Ranitidine ( Zantac ) a. Cimetidine ( Tagamet ) Which drug for acid - related disorders is contraindicated in pregnancy ? a. Antacids b. H2 blockers c. Misoprostol ( Cytotec ) d. Sucralfate ( Carafate ) c. Misoprostol ( Cytotec ) -stimulate uterine contractions In addition to use as an antiepileptic , which drug has an FDA approved indication for trigeminal neuralgia? a. Carbamazepine ( Tegretol ) b. Phenobarbital c. Phenytoin ( Dilantin ) d. Topirimate ( Topamax ) a. Carbamazepine ( Tegretol )a. TCAS NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Which of the atypical antipsychotics is associated with agranulocytosis ? a. Aripiprazole ( Abilify ) b. Asenapine ( Saphris ) c. Clozapine ( Clozaril ) d. Olanzapine ( Zyprexa ) c. Clozapine ( Clozaril ) - closely monitor CBC / program for monitoring Which of the drugs used to treat Parkinson's disease is associated with diarrhea ? a. Amantadine ( Symmetrel ) b. Benztropine ( Cogentin ) c. Entacapone ( Comtan ) d. Selegiline ( Eldepryl ) c. Entacapone ( Comtan ) Extrapyramidal effects and changes in libido are commonly seen in which of the following drug classes ? b. MAOIS C. SSRIs d. SNRIS a. TCAS Maybe SSRI's?? Googled. Antitussives NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Which of the following epilepsy treatments is effective in partial and generalized tonic - clonic seizures and is available in oral extended release formulation available for once - a - day dosing ? ) b. Carbamazepine ( Tegretol ) c. Ethosuzimide ( Zarontin ) d. None of the above a. Phenytoin ( Dilantin ) - only once a day Which of the following is FALSE in regards to Phenobarbital in the treatment of seizures ? a. Therapy for all seizure types b. Can be administered IV for status epilepticus c. Pregnancy category B d. Useful in infants c. Pregnancy category B - Category D Which of the following is NOT used in treatment of cocaine withdrawal ? a. Tricyclic antidepressants - block and stimulate dopamine release b. Bromocriptine - block and stimulate dopamine release c. Amantadine - block and stimulate dopamine release a. Phenytoin ( Dilantina. Inhaled short - acting beta 2 receptor agonist - works in 10-20 minutes c. Paradoxical excitation a. Fluoxetine ( Prozac ) -treat depression NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice d. Antitussives To prevent exercise - induced bronchospasm , which of the following would be effective monotherapy when initiated 5-15 minutes before exercise ? b. Oral methylxanthine - long term c. Oral corticosteroid - long term d. Inhaled corticosteroid - long term. a. Inhaled short - acting beta 2 receptor agonist - works in 10-20 minutes When prescribing the first generation antihistamines to children , what potential problem should the prescriber remain alert for in this special population ? a. Physical dependence b. Extrapyramidal effects d. Bronchospasm c. Paradoxical excitation Drug treatment options for a patient with bipolar disorder often include all of the following EXCEPT : b. Lithium carbonate - managementa. Have a delayed onset of action. NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice c. Risperidone ( Risperdal ) -treat the mania d. Valproic acid ( Depakote ) -treat the mania a. Fluoxetine ( Prozac ) -treat depression Long acting beta 2 receptor agonists , such as salmeterol ( serevent ) and formoterol ( foradil ) : b. Can safely be used in a child 10 years of age with a milk protein allergy c. Can be used to treat an acute attack of asthma d. Are administered every 4 to 6 hours a. Have a delayed onset of action. To reduce the risk of excessive peripheral vasoconstriction , which drug would be the safest to use to treat hypertension in a known substance abuser ( drug of choice is cocaine ) ? a. Propranolol ( Inderal ) - BB dec HR b. Verapamil ( Calan ) - CCR c. Nadolol ( Corgard ) - BB dec HR d. Sotalol ( Betapace ) - BB dec HR b. Verapamil ( Calan ) - CCR A patient presenting to the emergency room in status epilepticus without intravenous access can be treated with : a. Carbamazepine ( Tegretol )d. Less toxicity than all other anti - depressants NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice b. Fosphenytoin ( Cerebyx ) - IM c. Phenytoin ( Dilantin ) - IV d. Lamotrigine ( Lamictal ) b. Fosphenytoin ( Cerebyx ) - IM Although the bulk - forming laxative agents are generally very safe agents , in which of the following patients should they be avoided ? a. Debilitated , bed - ridden patients b. Patients with recent myocardial infarction c. Patients with laxative dependency d. Patients with an esophageal swallowing disorder d. Patients with an esophageal swallowing disorder An advantage of the selective serotonin re - uptake inhibitors in treating mood disorders is : a. Medication may be stopped quickly - tapered b. Rapid onset of drug effects - 3-4 weeks c. No dosage adjustment in renal or hepatic impairment - dec dosage d. Less toxicity than all other anti - depressants Antihistamines have antagonist activity on ( muscarinic ) cholinergic receptors , which leads to anticholinergic side effects. Examples of anticholinergic side effects include :c. Tachycardia NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice a. Nasal stuffiness b. Bronchospasms d. Pruritis c. Tachycardia What type of drug - drug interaction could occur if a patient on warfarin takes bismuth subsalicylate for a week ? a. Harmful pharmacodynamic b. Harmful pharmacokinetic c. Beneficial pharmacodynamics d. Beneficial pharmacokinetic a. Harmful pharmacodynamic Which drug combination could be potentiative , necessitating monitoring of serum drug levels ? a. Carbamazepine ( Tegretol ) + valproic acid ( Depakene ) b. Phenobarbital + Metoclopramide ( Reglan ) c. Ethosuximide ( Zarontine ) + Omeprazole ( Prilosec ) d. Topiramate ( Topamax ) + Sumatriptan ( Imitrex ) a. Carbamazepine ( Tegretol ) + valproic acid ( Depakene )b. Dopamine d. They are the most effective of the acid - reducing drugs NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Cocaine has a direct effect on neurons in the brain to release which neurotransmitter ? a. Norepinephrine c. Serotonin d. nicotinamide b. Dopamine Which statement is true regarding the proton - pump inhibitors , lansoprazole ( Prevacid ) and omeprazole ( Prilosec ) ? a. No effect on absorption of nutrients b. Not effective if taken concurrently with any other acid c. They are less expensive than the H2 blockers d. They are the most effective of the acid - reducing drugs Inhalational formulations of a drug are absorbed very quickly because : a. There is a small alveolar membrane surface area - " large " b. There are no natural defenses against inhaled particles c. They will be absorbed equally from both the lungs and upper digestive tract d. Of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar - capillary membrane d. Of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar - capillary membraneNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice In the treatment of asthma , leukotriene inhibitors should be used as a / an ? a. Long acting bronchodilators b . Inflammatory inhibitors c. Rescue drugs - SABA d. Intervention in acute inflammation - steroids b. Inflammatory inhibitors In the treatment of early Parkinson's disease , which drug can be used alone as initial monotherapy for tremor ? a. Amantadine ( Symmetrel ) b. Bromocriptinet ( Parlodel ) c. Entacapone ( Comtan ) ) d. Benztropine ( Cogentin ) 34. In which of the following patients would a proton pump inhibitor be preferred to other drugs that reduce or neutralize acid ? a. Initial episode of severe acute heartburn b. Immunosuppressed patient with esophageal candidiasis and dysphagia c. Patient with Zollinger - Ellison syndrome d. Low carbohydrate diet enthusiast with first peptic ulcer c. Patient with Zollinger - Ellison syndrome d. Benztropine ( Cogentinb. Albuterol ( Ventolin ) NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice A patient with phenytoin may exhibit drug toxicity when concurrently taking : a. Cimetidine b. Famotidine c. Acetaminophen d. Aspirin a. Cimetidine to cause constipation Of the following asthma medications , which would be most likely to cause problems for a patient who also has a history of cardiac arrhythmias ? a. Cromolyn sodium c. Ipratropium ( Atrovent ) d. Beclomethasone ( Beclovent ) b. Albuterol ( Ventolin ) - SABA ; also effects alpha 1 receptors Of the following antidiarrheal drugs , which one has the greatest potential ? a. Loperamide ( Imodium ) b. Bismuth subsalicylate ( Pepto - Bismol ) c. Diphenoxylate ( Lomotil ) d. Methylcellulose ( Citrucel ) b. Bismuth subsalicylate ( Pepto - Bismol )c. Hypertension d. All of the above a. May be used synergistically with a beta - 2 agonist NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Over - the - counter nasal decongestants must be used with caution , if at all , in patients with : a. Epilepsy b. Parkinson's disease d. Asthma c. Hypertension Preventive medications for the treatment of migraines have the following considerations : a. For patients who use pain relievers > 2 times per week b. Must be taken daily c. Beta blocker and anticonvulsants are FDA approved d. All of the above Regarding cromones ( cromolyn sodium or intal ) for treatment of mild asthma , which statement is true ? b. Recommended to be dosed once daily c. Relatively inexpensive d. Effective for relieving an acute episode of bronchospasma. That it may interfere with the absorption of other oral medications. d. Selegiline blocks the enzyme that metabolizes dopamine NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice a. May be used synergistically with a beta - 2 agonist When prescribing the barrier paste medication , sucralfate ( Carafate ) , it is important to inform the patient b. That this medication should be taken with an antacid ( i.e. , Maalox ) for maximal effectiveness c. That this medication should not be taken if the patient is also taking aspirin d. Not to take this medication if they have diabetes a. That it may interfere with the absorption of other oral medications. The drug selegiline ( Eldepryl ) is useful for the treatment of Parkinson's disease because a. It is a direct agonist to the actions of acetylcholine b. Selegiline is metabolized into dopamine by the liver c. It is a direct agonist to norepinephrine d. Selegiline blocks the enzyme that metabolizes dopamine The only sedative hypnotic approved by the FDA for chronic use up to 6 months is : a. Eszopiclone ( Lunesta ) b. Zaleplon ( Sonata ) c. Zolpidem ( Ambien )b. Acute cerebrovascular accident c. Diabetes mellitus d. Hypertension b. Acute cerebrovascular accident The use of lithium for the treatment of bipolar disorder a. Has been replaced by use of SSRIs which are effective for control of mania b. Is more effective for treatment of the depression phase c. May be toxic and requires monitoring serum levels of the drug d. Will not cause harm to a developing fetus NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice d. Ramelteon ( Rozerem ) a. Eszopiclone ( Lunesta ) The use of codeine as a cough suppressant , either alone or in combination with other drugs , would require special precaution in patients who have : a. Peptic ulcer disease c. May be toxic and requires monitoring serum levels of the drug Tricyclic antidepressant agents like amitriptyline ( Elavil ) a. Often cause serotonin syndrome b. Have a rapid ( 48-72 hours ) onset of actionc. May be effective for control of chronic pain NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice d. Commonly cause sexual dysfunction c. May be effective for control of chronic pain What advantage do the adsorbent - type antidiarrheal agents have over the opiate antidiarrheal agents ? a. The adsorbent - type drugs have greater efficacy for severe diarrhea b. The adsorbent - type drugs can be used safely in cases of infectious diarrhea c. They are absorbed into the blood faster than opiates d. The adsorbent - type drugs do not cause constipation as an adverse effect b. The adsorbent - type drugs can be used safely in cases of infectious diarrhea What advantage do the opiate antidiarrheal agents have over the adsorbent - type antidiarrheal agents ? a. Opiates have greater efficacy for severe diarrhea b. Opiates are preferred in cases of infectious diarrhea c. Opiates may be used safely in infants d. Opiates do not cause constipation as an adverse effect a. Opiates have greater efficacy for severe diarrhea What is the main reason a patient with renal insufficiency should avoid the antacid Maalox and the laxative Milk of Magnesia ?C. Has a longer duration of action b. Bupropion (Zyban) NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice a. These patients cannot adequately metabolize these drugs b. These drugs increase the risk of metabolic acidosis in these patients c. These patients are at increased risk for neurotoxicity secondary to Hypermagnesemia d. These drugs commonly cause water retention and hypertension in these patients c. These patients are at increased risk for neurotoxicity secondary to Hypermagnesemia When comparing antihistamines , the advantage ( s ) of fexofenadine ( Allegra ) over diphenhydramine ( Benadryl ) include ( s ) : a. Doesn't cause anticholinergic adverse effects b. Less expensive d. More sedating C. Has a longer duration of action Which of the following agents can be used for both nicotine withdrawal as well as an antidepressant? a. Amitriptyline c. Nicotine transdermal systems d. Varenicline (Chantix) b. Bupropion (Zyban)d. Products are available over the counter NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Which of the following is an advantage of using nicotine products as pharmacologic therapy for nicotine withdrawal? a. Dosage is the same for all patients b. There is a low relapse rate with all forms of nicotine replacement c. Patients may use the products for over 6 months d. Products are available over the counter Which of the following is most likely to produce an inhibitory, pharmacokinetic drug-drug interaction? a. The proton pump inhibitor, Lansoprazole (prevacid) b. The h-2 blocker, famotidine (Pepcid) c. The barrier paste, sucralfate (Carafate) d. The prostaglandin analog, misoprostel (cytotec) c. The barrier paste, sucralfate (Carafate)-blocks absorption of other meds Which of the following atypical antipsychotics does not cause weight gain, and may even result in weight loss? a. Zip rasidone (Geodon) b. Risperidone (Risperdal) c. Olanzapine (zyprexa) d. Clozapine (clozaril) a. Ziprasidone (Geodon)c. TCA b. Temazepam (restoril) b. Cimetidine (Tagamet) NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice A middle-aged executive who experienced insomnia with 2 different SSRIs. Which alternative therapy could relieve insomnia and depression? a. MAOI b. SNRI d. Benzodiazepine c. TCA- treatment of depression, insomnia, migraines, ADD, enuresis, adjuncts to analgesia Which drug is contraindicated for treatment of insomnia during early pregnancy? a. Remelteon (rozerem) c. Eszopiclone (Lunesta) d. Zolpidem (ambien) b. Temazepam (restoril)-CATEGORY X Which H2 blocker inhibits cytochrome P-450 enzymes in the liver? a. Ranitidine (zantac) c. Nizatidine (axid) d. Famotidine (Pepcid) b. Cimetidine (Tagamet)NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Hyperglycemia can occur, especially in patients with Diabetes type 2, sometimes progressing to coma and death in which of the following medications? a. Thiothixene (Navane) b. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) c. Haloperidol (Haldol) d. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) d. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)-atypical antipsychotic med Which of the following medications is most likely to cause sexual dysfunction? a. Nefaxodone (serzone) b. Fluoxetine (Prozac) c. Nortiptylline (Pamelor) d. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) b. Fluoxetine (Prozac) Drug treatment options for a patient with bipolar disorder often include all of the following except: a. 70 y/o man with an enlarged prostate b. 21 y/ female with oxycontin addiction c. 2 y/o child d. Smoker with chronic bronchitisc. Serotonin syndrome c. Typical antipsychotic drug NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice b. 21 y/ female with oxycontin addiction An adverse drug reaction that must be considered with the benzodiazepine hypnotic is Complex sleep-related behaviors Concurrent use of a SSRI with a MAOI can produce a. Zollinger-ellison syndrome b. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome d. Reyes syndrome c. Serotonin syndrome-hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare type of adverse drug reaction that can occur in patients taking a a. MAOI b. Benzodiazepine d. Tricyclic antidepressant c. Typical antipsychotic drug(hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, diaphoresis, arrhythmias,seizure,death)NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Nicotine withdrawal symptoms include all of the following except a. Nausea and diarrhea b. Insomnia and frequent awakening c. Anxiety and irritability d. Increased appetite and weight gain a. Nausea and diarrhea To watch for possible adverse effects, which lab test should be routinely monitored in a patient taking carbamazepine (tegretol) for control of epilepsy? a. Liver functions b. Fasting glucose c. BUN and creatitine d. Complete blood counts d. Complete blood counts Typical anti-psychotic drugs may worsen the symptoms of parkinsonism because a. Extrapyramidal adverse drug reactions b. The time to peak can be as long as 2-4 weeks c. Anticholinergic adverse drug reactions d. Stimulation of dopamine-2 receptor blockade a. Extrapyramidal adverse drug reactionsNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Which of the following are advantages of SSRIs? Minimal, if any, sedation Which Disadvantages of phenobarbital (Luminal) include a. Associated with tolerance and physical and psychological dependence b. Can produce severe respiratory depression in high dose by itself and in loser doses when administered concurrently with other CNS depressant drugs c. Well established as a teratogenic drug (PREG CAT D) d. Can produce paradoxical CNS excitation, especially when administered to older adults a. Associated with tolerance and physical and psychological dependence b. Can produce severe respiratory depression in high dose by itself and in loser doses when administered concurrently with other CNS depressant drugs c. Well established as a teratogenic drug (PREG CAT D) d. Can produce paradoxical CNS excitation, especially when administered to older adults Which statement is true regarding phenelzine (nardil) MAOI? Cannot start therapy within 14 days of stopping other antidepressants An anticonvulsant that is used in the treatment of anxiety disorder isNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice a. Gabapentin (Neurontin) b. Doxepin (sinequan) c. Phenobarbital d. Buspirone (Buspar) a. Gabapentin (Neurontin) Which of the following medications can be used for the treatment of depression, insomnia, and migraines? a. SSRIs b. MAOIs c. TCAs d. SNRIs c. TCAs Atypical antipsychotics have several adverse drug reactions. Which of the atypical antipsychotics is not associated with orthostatic hypotension? a. Aripiprazole (abilify) b. Iloperidone (fanapt) c. Risperidone (Risperdal) d. Quetiapine (Seroquel) a. Aripiprazole (abilify)NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Which statement is true about the hypnotic drug zolpidem (Ambien)? May cause "hangover" due to its long duration of action When benzodiazepine drugs are used for the treatment of insomnia this action is achieved They enhance the body's own GABA-mediated inhibitory process Which oral corticosteroid is not approved for children greater than or equal to 12 y/o Fludrocortisone Insomnia and anxiety may be treated with: Alprazolam (Xanax) Which of the following adverse effects may occur and create compliance issues for patients taking isotretinoin (Accutane)? Drying of the lips, eyes, and nasal mucosa Which lab test should be monitored in patients taking Accutane for acne?NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Liver Which of the following clinical situations would put the patient at an increased risk of ADRs? Patient's gender Narcotic analgesics drugs exert their effects on the body by Mimicking the actions of the body's own naturally occurring painkillers, interaction with the mu,kappa, delta, and sigma endorphine receptor, preventing nerve cells from firing, transmitting signals, and receiving signals. Calculating the therapeutic index is a way to assess Safety and toxicity Which of the following agents can be used for both nicotine withdrawal as well as an antidepressant? a. Amitriptyline- TCAs b. Bupropion (Zyban)- both nicotine/antidepressant c. Nicotine transdermal systems- nicotine d. Varenicline (Chantix)- nicotine b. Bupropion (Zyban)- both nicotine/antidepressantNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. Which drug is contraindicated for treatment of insomnia during early pregnancy? a. Remelteon (rozerem)-CATEGORY C b. Temazepam (restoril)-CATEGORY X c. Eszopiclone (Lunesta)-CATEGORY C d. Zolpidem (ambien) - CATEGORY C Which of the following is an advantage of using nicotine products as a pharmacologic therapy for nicotine withdrawal? a. Dosage is the same for all patients b. there is a low relapse rate with all forms of nicotine replacement c. patients may use the products for over 6 months d. products are available over the counter d. Products are available over the counter Which drug combination could be potentiative, necessitating monitoring of serum drug levels? a. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) + Valproic Acid (Depakene) b. Phenobarbital + metoclopramide (Reglan) c. Ethosuximide (Zarotin) + omeprazole (Prolisec) d. Topiramate (Topamax) + Imitrex a. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) + Valproic Acid (Depakene)NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. Which of the following is most likely to produce an inhibitory, pharmacokinetic drug-drug interaction? a. The proton pump inhibitor, Lansoprazole (prevacid) b. The h-2 blocker, famotidine (Pepcid) c. The barrier paste, sucralfate (Carafate)-blocks absorption of other meds d. The prostaglandin analog, misoprostel (cytotec) c. The barrier paste, sucralfate (Carafate)-blocks absorption of other meds 1. Which of the following atypical antipsychotics does not cause weight gain, and may even result in weight loss? a. Ziprasidone (Geodon) b. Risperidone (Risperdal) c. Olanzapine (zyprexa) d. Clozapine (clozaril) a. Ziprasidone (Geodon) 1. A middle-aged executive who experienced insomnia with 2 different SSRIs. Which alternative therapy could relieve insomnia and depression? a. MAOI-anxiety, depression, panic disorders, phobias b. SNRI-major depressive disorders, bipolar depression c. TCA- treatment of depression, insomnia, migraines, ADD, enuresis, adjuncts to analgesiaNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice d. Benzodiazepine-anxiety and insomnia c. TCA- treatment of depression, insomnia, migraines, ADD, enuresis, adjuncts to analgesia 1. Inhalational formulations of a drug are absorbed very quickly because a. There is small alveolar membrane surface area b. There are no natural defenses against inhaled particles c. They will be absorbed equally from both the lungs and the upper digestive tract d. Of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar-capillary membrane d. Of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar-capillary membrane 1. Which drug is contraindicated for treatment of insomnia during early pregnancy? a. Remelteon (rozerem)-CATEGORY C b. Temazepam (restoril)-CATEGORY X c. Eszopiclone (Lunesta)-CATEGORY C d. Zolpidem (ambien) - CATEGORY C b. Temazepam (restoril)-CATEGORY X 1. The only sedative hypnotic approved by the FDA for chronic use up to 6 months is a. Remelteon (rozerem) b. Eszopiclone (Lunesta) c. Zolpidem (ambien)NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice b. Eszopiclone (Lunesta) 1. Which H2 blocker inhibits cytochrome P-450 enzymes in the liver? a. Ranitidine (zantac) b. Cimetidine (Tagamet) c. Nizatidine (axid) d. Famotidine (Pepcid) b. Cimetidine (Tagamet) 1. Which statement is true regarding the proton-pump inhibitors, Prevacid and Prilosec? a. They are the most effective of the acid-reducing drugs 1. Which of the following is FALSE in regards to phenobarbital in the treatment of seizures? a. Therapy for all seizure types b. Can be administered IV for status epilepticus c. Pregnancy category B- PHENOBARBITAL IS CATEGORY D d. Useful in infants-APPROVED FOR ALL AGES OF CHILDREN a. Pregnancy category B- PHENOBARBITAL IS CATEGORY DNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. A patient with phenytoin may exhibit drug toxicity when concurrently taking a. Cimetidine (TAGAMENT) b. Famotidine c. Acetaminophen d. Aspirin a. Cimetidine (TAGAMENT) 1. Hyperglycemia can occur, especially in patients with Diabetes type 2, sometimes progressing to coma and death in which of the following medications? a. Thiothixene (Navane) b. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) c. Haloperidol (Haldol) d. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)-atypical antipsychotic med a. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)-atypical antipsychotic med 1. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause sexual dysfunction? a. Nefaxodone (serzone) b. Fluoxetine (Prozac) c. Nortiptylline (Pamelor) d. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) a. Fluoxetine (Prozac)NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. Which of the following is not used in treatment of cocaine withdrawal? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Bromocriptine c. Armantadine d. Antitussives a. Antitussives 1. Drug treatment options for a patient with bipolar disorder often include all of the following except: a. 70 y/o man with an enlarged prostate b. 21 y/ female with oxycontin addiction c. 2 y/o child d. Smoker with chronic bronchitis a. 21 y/ female with oxycontin addiction 1. A patient presenting to the ER in status epilepticus without IV access can be treated with a. Fosphenytoin (cerebyx) b. Carbamazepine (tegretol) c. Lamotrigine (Lamictal) d. Phenytoin (Dilantin) a. Fosphenytoin (cerebyx)NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. An adverse drug reaction that must be considered with the benzodiazepine hypnotic is a. Complex sleep-related behaviors 1. Cocaine has a direct effect on neurons in the brain to release which neurotransmitter? a. Dopamine b. Nicotinamide c. Serotonin Norepinephrine a. Dopamine 1. Concurrent use of a SSRI with a MAOI can produce a. Zollinger-ellison syndrome b. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome c. Serotonin syndrome-hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, d. Reyes syndrome a. Serotonin syndrome-hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, 1. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare type of adverse drug reaction that can occur in patients taking aNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice a. MAOI b. Benzodiazepine c. Typical antipsychotic drug(hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, diaphoresis, arrhythmias,seizure,death) d. Tricyclic antidepressant Typical antipsychotic drug(hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, diaphoresis, arrhythmias,seizure,death) 1. Nicotine withdrawal symptoms include all of the following except a. Nausea and diarrhea b. Insomnia and frequent awakening c. Anxiety and irritability d. Increased appetite and weight gain a. Nausea and diarrhea 1. The use of lithium for the treatment of bipolar disorder a. Is more effective for treatment of the depression phase b. Will not cause harm to a developing fetus c. May be toxic and requires monitoring serum levels of the drug d. Has been replaced by SSRIs which are effective for control of mania a. May be toxic and requires monitoring serum levels of the drugNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. To watch for possible adverse effects, which lab test should be routinely monitored in a patient taking carbamazepine (tegretol) for control of epilepsy? a. Liver functions b. Fasting glucose c. BUN and creatitine d. Complete blood counts a. Complete blood counts 1. Typical anti-psychotic drugs may worsen the symptoms of parkinsonism because a. Extrapyramidal adverse drug reactions b. The time to peak can be as long as 2-4 weeks c. Anticholinergic adverse drug reactions d. Stimulation of dopamine-2 receptor blockade a. Extrapyramidal adverse drug reactions 1. Which of the following are advantages of SSRIs? a. No effect on libido or other sexual function b. Minimal, if any sedation a. Minimal, if any sedation 1. What alternative therapy for bipolar disorder would you offer a patient who developed hyperglycemic coma on risperidone (atypical antipsychotic)?NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice a. Olanzapine, atypical antipsychotic b. Ethosuximide, anti-epileptic c. Valproic acid, anti-epileptic d. Chrompromazine, typical antipsychotic a. Valproic acid, anti-epileptic 1. Which Disadvantages of phenobarbital (Luminal) include a. Associated with tolerance and physical and psychological dependence b. Can produce severe respiratory depression in high dose by itself and in loser doses when administered concurrently with other CNS depressant drugs c. Well established as a teratogenic drug (PREG CAT D) d. Can produce paradoxical CNS excitation, especially when administered to older adults a. Associated with tolerance and physical and psychological dependence b. Can produce severe respiratory depression in high dose by itself and in loser doses when administered concurrently with other CNS depressant drugs c. Well established as a teratogenic drug (PREG CAT D) d. Can produce paradoxical CNS excitation, especially when administered to older adults 1. Which statement is true regarding phenelzine (nardil) a MAOI? a. Cannot start therapy within 14 days of stopping other antidepressants 1. An anticonvulsant that is used in the treatment of anxiety disorder isNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice a. Gabapentin (Neurontin) b. Doxepin (sinequan) c. Phenobarbital d. Buspirone (Buspar) a. Gabapentin (Neurontin) 1. Which of the following medications can be used for the treatment of depression, insomnia, and migraines? a. SSRIs b. MAOIs c. TCAs d. SNRIs a. TCAs 1. Atypical antipsychotics have several adverse drug reactions. Which of the atypical antipsychotics is not associated with orthostatic hypotension? a. Aripiprazole (abilify) b. Iloperidone (fanapt) c. Risperidone (Risperdal) d. Quetiapine (Seroquel) Aripiprazole (abilify)NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. An advantage of the SSRIs in treating mood disorders is a. Medication may be stopped quickly b. Rapid onset of drug effects c. No dosage adjustment in renal or hepatic impairment d. Less toxicity than all other antidepressants. Less toxicity than all other antidepressants. 1. Extrapyramidal effects and changes in libido are commonly seen in which of the following drug classes? a. TCAs b. MAOIs c. SSRIs d. SNRIs a. TCAs a. SSRIs 1. Tricyclic antidepressant agents like amitriptyline (Elavil) a. Often causes serotonin syndrome b. Have a rapid (48-72 hour) onset of action c. May be effective for control of chronic pain d. Commonly causes sexual dysfunction a. May be effective for control of chronic painNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. Which statement is true about the hypnotic drug zolpidem (Ambien)? a. May cause "hangover" due to its long duration of action 1. When benzodiazepine drugs are used for the treatment of insomnia this action is achieved a. They enhance the body's own GABA-mediated inhibitory process 1. Which oral corticosteroid is not approved for children greater than or equal to 12 y/o a. Fludrocortisone b. Hydrocortisone a. Fludrocortisone 1. Insomnia and anxiety may be treated with: a. Alprazolam (Xanax) Which of the following adverse effects may occur and create compliance issues for patients taking isotretinoin (Accutane)? a. Drying of the lips, eyes, and nasal mucosaNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. Which lab test should be monitored in patients taking Accutane for acne? a. Liver 1. Which of the following clinical situations would put the patient at an increased risk of ADRs? a. Patient's gender 1. Narcotic analgesics drugs exert their effects on the body by a. Mimicking the actions of the body's own naturally occurring painkillers, interaction with the mu,kappa, delta, and sigma endorphine receptor, preventing nerve cells from firing, transmitting signals, and receiving signals. 1. Calculating the therapeutic index is a way to assess Safety and toxicity 1. The selection of a specific drug for a patient should be influenced by consideration of a. Possible drug interactions b. Route of administrationNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice c. Data from a single source of drug information d. Potential for patient compliance a. Possible drug interactions b. Route of administration d. Potential for patient compliance 1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the drug-response relationship? a. The prescriber may need to deviate from the dosage recommended by the manufacturer of the drug b. The prescriber can eliminate all patient noncompliance factors by sufficiently educating the patient c. Alcohol consumption may interact with prescription medications thereby altering the intended response d. The ultimate response of a drug is a combination of both therapeutic and unintended responses to a drug a. The prescriber may need to deviate from the dosage recommended by the manufacturer of the drug c. Alcohol consumption may interact with prescription medications thereby altering the intended response d. The ultimate response of a drug is a combination of both therapeutic and unintended responses to a drug 1. A drug's therapeutic index can be defined as a. The drug dosage that produces 100% of the therapeutic effect b. The ratio of the average lethal dose of the drug compared to the average effective therapeutic dose of the drugNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice c. A measurement of a drugs safety and toxicity d. The time course of a drugs action b. The ratio of the average lethal dose of the drug compared to the average effective therapeutic dose of the drug c. A measurement of a drugs safety and toxicity 1. Which of the following drugs require frequent lab monitoring of complete blood counts? a. The anti-psychotic lithium b. The prokinetic agent, metoclopramide (Reglan) c. The anti-epileptic carbamazepine (tegretol) d. The anti-psychotic, clozapine (clozaril) c. The anti-epileptic carbamazepine (tegretol) d. The anti-psychotic, clozapine (clozaril) 1. Which drug combination has been associated with Serotonin syndrome? a. Triptan and SSRI b. SSRI and MAOI c. Triptan and barbiturates d. SNRI and MAOI a. Triptan and SSRI b. SSRI and MAOI d. SNRI and MAOINURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. Which Disadvantages of phenobarbital (Luminal) include a. Associated with tolerance and physical and psychological dependence b. Can produce severe respiratory depression in high dose by itself and in loser doses when administered concurrently with other CNS depressant drugs c. Well established as a teratogenic drug (PREG CAT D) d. Can produce paradoxical CNS excitation, especially when administered to older adults All of the above 1. In addition to epilepsy, which drugs also have FDA approval to treat bipolar disorder? a. Valproic acid (Depakote) b. Ethosuximide (Zarontin) c. Phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Lamotrigine (Lamictal) a. Valproic acid (Depakote) d. Lamotrigine (Lamictal) 1. SSRIs are now considered the first line agents for the treatment of depression. The advantage(s) of these agents include a. Rapid (48-72 our) onset of maximal antidepressant action b. Minimal sexual dysfunction c. Less toxicity than tricyclic antidepressants d. Low risk of orthostatic hypotensionNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice c. Less toxicity than tricyclic antidepressants d. Low risk of orthostatic hypotension 1. Which of the following anticonvulsants are classified as Category D in pregnancy a. Valproate (Depakote) b. Phenobarbital (Luminol) c. Lamotrigene (Lamictal) d. Phenytoin (Dilantin) a. Valproate (Depakote) b. Phenobarbital (Luminol) d. Phenytoin (Dilantin) 1. When treating mood disorders, which classes of drugs can lower the seizure threshold? a. Tetracyclic antidepressants b. Tricyclic antidepressants c. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors d. Benzodiazepines a. Tetracyclic antidepressants b. Tricyclic antidepressants c. Monoamine oxidase inhibitorsNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. Cholinergic side effects are common with antidepressants. Which of the drug classes used to treat depression have this as a side effect? a. MAOIs b. SNRIs c. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) d. Tetracyclic antidepressants c. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) d. Tetracyclic antidepressants 1. Ethanol withdrawal symptoms include a. Insomnia b. Hypotension c. Hypothermia d. Seizures a. Insomnia d. Seizures 1. Promethazine is contraindicated in children of what age? a. <1 year b. <2 years c. <3 years b. <2 yearsNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. Treatment of patient with COPD include all the following EXCEPT: a. Beta agonists b. Leukotrienes c. Methylxanthine Muscinaric agents b. Leukotrienes 1. Patient presenting with CAP and comorbidities (chronic heart, lung, liver, or renal disease) which single agent would be sufficient treatment? a. Respiratory fluoroquinolone (Levaquin or moxifloxacin[Avelox]) b. Doxycycline c. Macrolide (azithromycin or clarithromycin) d. Beta-lactam (amoxicillin) a. Respiratory fluoroquinolone (Levaquin or moxifloxacin[Avelox]) 1. Which of the following would be the most appropriate therapy for managing diarrhea in a 22-month-old child? a. PedialyteNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 1. A child who presents with a diagnosis of chlamydial pneumonia should be prescribed which of the following antimicrobials? a. Macrolide 1. Disadvantages of the respiratory corticosteroid drugs include: a. hypoglycemia b. weight gain c. osteoporosis d. risk of infection b. weight gain c. osteoporosis d. risk of infection Which of the following agents increases the water content in stool that is forming in the intestinal tract? a. Magnesium Citrate b. Magnesium Hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) c. Lactulose d. Both a & c a. Magnesium Citrate b. Magnesium Hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) c. LactuloseNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 32. Which of the following agents are approved for the treatment of H. Pylori? a. Amoxicillin b. Tetracycline c. Metronidazole d. Clarithromycin All of the above 33. Which of the following are disadvantages of antacids? a. Hypernatremia b. Hypercalcemia c.Hypermagnesemia d.Hyperaluminemia All of the above 34. Which of the following is used prophylactically for gastric ulcer progression a. Misoprostol b. Sucralfate c. Omeprazole d. cimetidine b. SucralfateNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 35.Which of the following is an advantage of scolpamine a. Available in many formulations long duration of action with transdermal (72hrs) b. Less sedating than the antihistamine antiemetic's c. Onset of 30-60 minutes with oral and parenteral forms d. All of the above d. All of the above Although most antiemetic's produce sedation, which of the following is least likely to have this effect a. Dronabinol b. Trimethobenzamide c. Promethazine d. Ondansetron d. Ondansetron 37. Electrolyte depletion is most likely to occur with which of the following laxatives a. Mineral oil b. Sodium docusate c. Psyllium d. Bisacodyl --- stimulant d. Bisacodyl-- stimulantNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice 38. All of the following can neutralize or block production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach except a. Nizantidine b. Lansoprazole c. Metronidazole d. Rabeprazole c. Metronidazole 39. The cornerstone of moderate persistent asthma drug therapy is the use of a. Oral theophylline b. Mast cell stabilizers c. Short acting beta agonist d. Inhaled corticosteroids d. Inhaled corticosteroids 40. Which of the following corticosteroids is indicated for nephrotic syndrome? a. Betamethasone b. Cortisone c. Dexamethasone d. Prednisone Deltasone) d. Prednisone Deltasone)NURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Which of the following migraine medications can predispose a patient to bleeding tendency and/or GI irritation a. Sumatriptan b. Ergotamine c. Fiorinal -contains aspirin d. Meperidine c. Fiorinal -contains aspirin 42. To reduce the risk of excessive peripheral vasoconstriction which drug would be the safest to use to treat hypertension in a known substance abuser a. Propranolol b. Verapamil-CCB c. Nadolol d. Sotalol b. Verapamil-CCB 43. Although most asthmatics are controlled with a combination of medications, the class that provides the most effective bronchodilation is a. anticholinergic inhalants b. Methylxanthines c. Beta 2 adrenergic agonists(Short actingNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice d. Cromones c. Beta 2 adrenergic agonists(Short acting Long term use of antacids can lead to which electrolyte disturbance---which cause Nephrolithiasis a. Hyponatremia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypomagnesemia d. Hyperglycemia b. Hypercalcemia Which of the following is most likely to produce an inhibitory pharmacokinetic drug-drug interaction a. The prostaglandin analog, misoprostol b. The antidepressant, paroxetine c. The barrier past sucralfate—can also inhibit absorption of other meds d. The antiemetic, ondansetron c. The barrier past sucralfate—can also inhibit absorption of other meds Serum levels of methylxanthine drugs are increased when used concomitantly with which of the following medications a. RifampinNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice b. Ketoconazole c. Phenobarbital d. Beta blockers d. Beta blockers According to the FDA, which drug for respiratory illness should not be given for kids younger than 2 years? a. Prednisone b. Albuterol c. N-Acetylcysteine d. Dextromethorphan d. Dextromethorphan Which of the following would be useful to abort a migraine headache a. Narcotic analgesic b. Beta blocker c. SSRI d. anticonvulsant a. Narcotic analgesic Which of the following can be used as a mucolytic agent for patients with chronic bronchitis or cystic fibrosisNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice a. Terbutaline b. Dornase c. Budesonide d. Ipratropium b. Dornase What is the main reason a person with renal insufficiency should avoid the antacid Maalox and the laxative Milk of Magnesia a. These patients cannot adequately metabolize these drugs b. These drugs can increase the risk of metabolic acidosis in these patients c. These patients are at risk for neurotoxicity secondary to hypermagnesemia d. These drugs commonly cause water retention and hypertension in these patients c. These patients are at risk for neurotoxicity secondary to hypermagnesemia Which of the following would be the most appropriate drug therapy for managing diarrhea in a 22-month old child a. Bismuth subsalicylate b. Loperamide c. Diphenoxylate d. Pedialyte d. PedialyteNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Advair diskus contains a combination of a. Salmeterol and Fluticasone b. Salmeterol and acetylcysteine c. Epinephrine and Fluticasone d. Cromlyn and fluticasone a. Salmeterol and Fluticasone When prescribing 1st generation antihistamines to children, which potential problem should the prescriber be alert for in this special population a. Physical dependence b. Extrapyramidal effects c. Paradoxical excitation d. Bronchospasm c. Paradoxical excitation All of the following respiratory agents are safe to use in pregnancy except a. Brompheniramine b. Potassium iodide c. Hydrocortisone d. Dextromethorphan b. Potassium iodideNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Which H-2 blocker inhibits CYP-450 enzymes in the liver a. Ranitidine (Zantac) b. Cimetidine (Tagamet) c. Nizatidine (Axid) d. Famotidine (Pepcid) b. Cimetidine (Tagamet) Which statement is true regarding the concurrent administration of inhalational respiratory steroids and inhalational beta-2 adrenergic agonists in the treatment of asthma? a. The beta-2 agonists also have anti-inflammatory effects on the lung b. The steroids prevent the down regulation of the beta-2 receptors caused by continuous use of the beta-2 drugs c. The steroids also have affinity for the intrinsic activity on the beta-2 receptors d. The steroids increase absorption of the beta-2 agonists through the respiratory mucosa B. The steroids prevent the down regulation of the beta-2 receptors caused by continuous use of the beta-2 drugs Promethazine is contraindicated in children of what age a. <1 year b. <2 years c. <3 years d. <6 years b. <2 yearsNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice Preventative medication for the treatment of migraines have the following considerations a. For patients who use pain relievers > 2x/week b. Must be taken daily c. Beta blocker and anticonvulsants are FDA approved d. All of the above d. All of the above Which of the e following medications can be used for depression, insomnia, and migraines a. SSRIs b. MOAIs c. TCAs d. SNRIs c. TCAs What instruction is appropriate for a patient prescribed Miralax for constipation a. This medication is intended for long term use b. Deficiencies of fat soluable vitamins may occur c. It takes 2-3 days to see results from this laxative d. Use of this drug may cause a low potassium level d. Use of this drug may cause a low potassium levelNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice The antiemetic aprepitant (Emend) works by blocking a. Serotonin receptors b. Chloride channels in the intestine c. Substance P d. Dopamine receptors in the CTZ c. Substance P Step 2 treatment of persistent asthma Anticholinergic and Leukotriene receptor antagonist FDA approved drugs for prophylaxis of migraines beta blockers; anticonvulsants Who is at risk for increased theophyine levels: a. Neonate/older, CHF, oral contraceptives Antitussive with possible hypersensitivity reaction manifested by bronchospasmNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice A. Benzonatate (Tessalon) b. Codeine c. Dextromethorphan d. Benadryl A. Benzonatate (Tessalon) 1. H-2 blocker commonly associated with gynecomastia: Cimetidine (Tagamet) . Drug for acid related d/o that is contraindicated in pregnancy a. Antacids b. H-2 blockers c. Misoprostol (Cytotec) d. Sucralfate (Carafate) c. Misoprostol (Cytotec) Will prevent exercise induced asthma if taken 15 min prior to exercise: Inhaled short acting Beta-2 receptor agonistNURS 617 - Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Nursing Practice When prescribing 1st gen antihistamines to kids what should you be ready for Paradoxical excitation LABA's, such as salmeterol (Servent) and formo