180 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS &
RATIONALES | ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR WITH NGN LATEST
VERSION (NEW!!)
Question 1
The nurse is providing teaching to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus about important points
for disease and symptom management. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A) Using salt, herbs, and spices will improve the flavor of foods.
B) Get an eye examination with an ophthalmologist annually.
C) Arrange a diet schedule around three regular meals a day.
D) Inspect feet every month for ingrown nails, cuts, and calluses.
E) I will only need to check my blood sugar when I feel symptoms.
Correct Answer: B) Get an eye examination with an ophthalmologist annually.
Rationale: Diabetic retinopathy is a major complication of diabetes mellitus (DM). An
annual dilated eye examination by an ophthalmologist is essential for early detection and
prevention of blindness.
Question 2
The nurse is providing education to a client who experiences recurrent levels of moderate anxiety
due to situations and perceived stress. In addition to information about prescribed medication and
administration, which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Center attention on positive upbeat music.
B) Find outlets for more social interaction.
C) Practice using muscle relaxation techniques.
D) Think about reasons the episodes occur.
E) Limit all physical activity during anxiety episodes.
Correct Answer: C) Practice using muscle relaxation techniques.
Rationale: Progressive muscle relaxation (PMR) is a somatic approach that directly reduces
the physical symptoms of anxiety (muscle tension, racing heart) by training the client to
control muscle groups, which is an effective coping mechanism.
Question 3
The charge nurse is planning for the shift and has a registered nurse (RN) and a practical nurse
,(PN) on the team. Which client should the charge nurse assign to the RN?
A) A 75-year-old client with renal calculi who requires urine straining.
B) A 64-year-old client who had a total hip replacement the previous day.
C) A 30-year-old depressed client who admits to suicide ideation.
D) An adolescent with multiple contusions due to a fall that occurred 2 days ago.
E) A client who is scheduled for discharge teaching and has stable vital signs.
Correct Answer: C) A 30-year-old depressed client who admits to suicide ideation.
Rationale: A client with acute suicidal ideation represents a psychological and safety risk
requiring continuous, comprehensive assessment, complex decision-making, and crisis
intervention, which falls within the specialized domain of the Registered Nurse (RN).
Question 4
A client with pancreatitis complains of severe epigastric pain, so the nurse administers a
prescribed narcotic analgesic. Ten minutes later, the client insists on sitting up and leaning
forward. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Raise the head of bed until to a 90 degree angle.
B) Position the bedside table so the client can lean across it.
C) Place bed in a reverse Trendelenburg position.
D) Encourage rest until the analgesic becomes effective.
E) Place the client in a left side-lying position with knees flexed.
Correct Answer: B) Position the bedside table so the client can lean across it.
Rationale: The pain of pancreatitis is often lessened in the tripod position (sitting up and
leaning forward). Positioning the bedside table to allow the client to lean across it provides
support and comfort in this position.
Question 5
The nurse is caring for a client who arrives to the emergency department with reports of
experiencing dizziness and difficulty walking to the bathroom. The nurse observes right-sided
weakness and sluggish enunciation of speech. The nurse should immediately take which action?
A) Maintain elevated positioning of the dependent joints on affected side.
B) Keep the bed in the lowest position and initiate seizure and fall precautions.
C) Place an indwelling urinary catheter and measure strict intake and output.
,D) Start two large bore IV catheters and review inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy.
E) Obtain a complete nutritional history from the client's partner.
Correct Answer: D) Start two large bore IV catheters and review inclusion criteria for IV
fibrinolytic therapy.
Rationale: The client is showing signs of an acute stroke (CVA). Immediate priorities are
securing IV access for emergent medication (fibrinolytics) administration and obtaining
rapid diagnostics, as fibrinolytics are time-sensitive.
Question 6
A male client with a brain tumor is scheduled for a biopsy in the morning. During the admission
procedure, the client has a tonic-clonic seizure that lasts 50 seconds. Following the seizure, the
client is lethargic and confused and his wife tells the nurse that her husband has never had a
seizure before and has always been alert and communicative. Which action should the nurse
take?
A) Ask the wife to wait outside the room until the nurse can talk with her.
B) Keep orienting the client to time and space until he is less confused.
C) Notify the emergency response team of the client's seizure.
D) Explain the postictal state that usually follows seizures.
E) Administer a PRN dose of IV lorazepam immediately.
Correct Answer: D) Explain the postictal state that usually follows seizures.
Rationale: The period of lethargy and confusion following a tonic-clonic seizure is the
expected postictal state. Explaining this physiological process to the spouse provides
accurate information and reassurance that the client's current status is a temporary, non-
emergent phase.
Question 7
The nurse is providing lifestyle change education for a client to slow the progression of coronary
artery disease. Which statement(s) made by the client should the nurse recognize as needing
additional education? (Select all that apply.)
A) Keep a food diary.
B) Eat more canned vegetables.
C) Consume foods with saturated fats.
, D) Walk 30 minutes per day.
E) Include oatmeal for breakfast.
F) Use a salt substitute.
Correct Answer: B) Eat more canned vegetables. and C) Consume foods with saturated fats.
Rationale: Canned foods are often high in sodium, which is detrimental to cardiac health.
Saturated fats increase cholesterol levels, which accelerates atherosclerosis and coronary
artery disease.
Question 8
While caring for a toddler receiving oxygen via face mask, the nurse observes that the child's lips
and nares are dry and cracked. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Use a water soluble lubricant on affected oral and nasal mucosa.
B) Use a topical lidocaine analgesic for cracked lips.
C) Ask the mother what she usually uses on the child's lips and nose.
D) Apply a petroleum jelly to the child's nose and lips.
E) Increase the humidification in the child's room.
Correct Answer: A) Use a water soluble lubricant on affected oral and nasal mucosa.
Rationale: Oxygen is a fire accelerant. Petroleum-based products (petroleum jelly) should
never be used on the face or near any oxygen delivery device. A water-soluble lubricant is
the safe and appropriate choice.
Question 9
When assessing a multigravida on the first postpartum day, the nurse finds a moderate amount of
lochia rubra, with the uterus firm, and three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus. What action
should the nurse implement first?
A) Increase intravenous infusion.
B) Massage the uterus to decrease atony.
C) Review the hemoglobin to determine hemorrhage.
D) Check for a distended bladder.
E) Document the finding as normal.
Correct Answer: D) Check for a distended bladder.
Rationale: A firm but elevated uterus is a classic sign of a full bladder, which displaces the