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AANP Family Nurse Practitioner Exam Questions with Verified Rationalized Answers 100% Guarantee Pass score of 700 points

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Content Coverage: Includes 150+ practice questions with verified rationales covering core topics such as: Diagnostics Pharmacology OB/GYN Pediatrics Geriatrics Chronic care management Format: Questions are modeled after the actual AANP exam format, with multiple-choice items and detailed answer explanations to reinforce clinical decision-making. Target Audience: Nurse Practitioner students preparing for the 2025 AANP Family Nurse Practitioner board exam, especially those aiming for a guaranteed pass score of 700 points or higher. Study Benefits: Builds confidence through exposure to real exam-style questions. Clarifies complex clinical concepts with rationalized answers. Helps identify weak areas for focused review.

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Institution
AANP Family Nurse Practitioner
Course
AANP Family Nurse Practitioner

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Uploaded on
October 20, 2025
Number of pages
96
Written in
2025/2026
Type
Exam (elaborations)
Contains
Questions & answers

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AANP Family Nurse Practitioner Exam
Questions with Verified Rationalized Answers
100% Guarantee Pass score of 700 points


Consist of 150 Questions with Answers



1. A 34-week pregnant patient presents to the emergency room with sudden
onset of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding.
Which condition is most likely?


a) placental abruption
b) ectopic pregnancy
c) Miscarriage
d) Placenta previa
Answer> Placental abruption


- Placental abruption is the early separation of the placenta from the lining of the
uterus.
It is a rare but serious complication of the second half of pregnancy.
Placental abruption is an emergency situation that places the well-being of the
mother and fetus at risk.




,2. Which is a common causative organism of pelvic inflammatory disease?


a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b) Trichomonas vaginalis
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Mycoplasma genitalium
Answer> Neisseria gonorrhoeae


- Gonorrhea and chlamydia are the most common organisms causing pelvic inflam-
matory disease.


3. A middle-aged patient presents to the clinic for evaluation of new-onset
hypertension and occasional flank pain.
There is a family history of a maternal grandmother deceased with "some kind
of kidney problem", and an in-office urinalysis is positive for 3 plus protein.
In addition to addressing hypertension, which is the next appropriate step in
the management of this patient?


a) refer for genetic testing
b) restrict all protein in diet
c) repeat urinalysis in 3 months
d) order a renal US
Answer> Order a renal ultrasound


- This patient has a positive family history of renal disease, flank pain, and pro-
teinuria, all of which are indicators of polycystic kidney disease. The hypertension


,should be treated and a renal ultrasound ordered. An ultrasound of the kidneys is
the preferred diagnostic test.


4. A young adult patient presents to the clinic with concerns about a skin
infection. The patient reports no tenderness or drainage and states the rash
started after participating in a wrestling tournament.
Upon examination, the nurse practitioner finds plaques with crusting on the
right lower leg.
A culture is done and shows a Staphylococcus aureus infection.
Which bacterial skin infection does the nurse practitioner suspect?


a) impetigo
b) folliculitis
c) Herpes gladiatorum
d) Hidradenitis suppurativa
Answer> Impetigo
- Nonbullous impetigo, an S. aureus infection, occurs in a localized area that initially
begins as papules and progresses to vesicles, pustules, and then honey-colored
plaques.


5. In performing a neurological exam and assessing the patient's cranial
nerves, the nurse practitioner notes fasciculations across the tongue's sur-
face.
Which nerve is affected?


a) CN VI (abducens)


, b) CN XII (hypoglossal)
c) CN XI (accessory)
d) CN X (vagus)
Answer> Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal)


- Cranial nerve XII is the hypoglossal nerve and allows motor movement of the
tongue muscles. This nerve is tested by asking the patient to stick out the tongue
and observing for atrophy, fasciculations, and tongue deviation to one side.




6. An older adult patient with hypertension, depression, and diabetes mellitus
type 2 is experiencing periods of intermittent confusion. A cognitive assess-
ment does not demonstrate impairment.
Current medications include aspirin, lisinopril (Zestril), atorvastatin (Lipitor),
metformin (Glucophage), sertraline (Zoloft), diphenhydramine (Benadryl) as
needed for sleep and acetaminophen (Tylenol) as needed for pain.
Which is the best action?


a) discontinue sertraline (zoloft)
b) Increase sertraline
c) prescribe donepezil (aricept)
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