AAOS Musculoskeletal Trauma Self-Assessment Examination Answer Book | Latest 2025/2026 Edition | American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons

musculoskeletal
Trauma
2018

,1*A 36-year-old man has right shoulder pain after a fall from a bicycle. What is the most likely
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complication of nonsurgical treatment of the injury shown in Figure 1?
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1- Nonunion

2- Symptomatic malunion T




3-Skin breakdown
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4-Acromioclavicular joint arthrosis T T




Correct answer :1
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The patient has a Neer type II distal clavicle fracture with radiographic evidence of coracoclavicular
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ligament disruption. With non-surgical treatment, the most commonly reported complication is
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nonunion, with rates reported to be as high as 44%. However, many patients with distal clavicular
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nonunion remain asymptomatic. Symptomatic malunion and skin breakdown over the fracture site are
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certainly possible, but are less common than nonunion. Because the fracture does not extend into the
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acromioclavicular joint, post-traumatic arthrosis would not be expected.
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,2*A 99-year-old woman sustains the injury shown in Figure 1 after falling from a standing position.
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What is the most cost-effective treatment?
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1- Three cannulated screws
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2- Long intramedullary nail
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3- Sliding hip screw T T




4- Short intramedullary nail
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Correct answer : 3 T T T




Intertrochanteric hip fractures remain a common injury that orthopaedic surgeons manage. The
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Toptimal form of surgical stabilization for these injuries has been a topic of debate over the years.
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TRecent studies have demonstrated equivalent outcomes between the use of sliding hip screws and
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Tintramedullary nails for stable fracture patterns. Recent guidelines have suggested that the use of
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Tsliding hip screws for stable fracture patterns can have a significant reduction in cost per case.
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, Figure for question 3+4+5
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