ATLS
10th Edition Post Test
Actual Questions and Answers
100% Guaranteed Pass
This Exam contains:
100% Guaranteed Pass.
Multiple-Choice (A–D), For Each Question.
Each Question Includes The Correct Answer
Rationale That Aligns with Atls Post Test 2025 Principles.
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1. Which of the following is the recommended method for treating frostbite?
A. Vasodilators
B. Warm water immersion at approximately 40°C
C. Padding and elevation only
D. Application of heat from a hairdryer
Ans: B. Warm water immersion at approximately 40°C
Explanation:
• Rapid rewarming in a circulating water bath at 37–40°C (approx.) is the standard
of care for frostbite management.
• Use of hairdryers or dry heat is contraindicated due to the risk of uneven heating
and tissue damage.
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2. Which of the following physical findings suggests a cause of hypotension other
than spinal cord injury?
A. Priapism
B. Bradycardia
C. Diaphragmatic breathing
D. Presence of deep tendon reflexes
Ans: D. Presence of deep tendon reflexes
Explanation:
• Spinal shock typically presents with flaccidity and loss of reflexes below the level
of injury.
• Preserved or brisk deep tendon reflexes suggest that the hypotension is not solely
due to spinal cord injury.
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3. The primary indication for transferring a patient to a higher-level trauma center
is:
A. Unavailability of a surgeon or operating staff
B. Multiple system injuries (including severe head injury)
C. Resource limitations as determined by the transferring doctor
D. Widened mediastinum on chest X-ray after blunt trauma
Ans: C. Resource limitations as determined by the transferring doctor
Explanation:
• Transfer is indicated when the current facility lacks the necessary resources—
clinical expertise, specialist availability, or equipment—to manage the patient
effectively.
• The decision rests with the physician responsible for the patient’s care, based on
local capabilities.
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4. A young man has a gunshot wound to the mid-abdomen. He arrives hypotensive
(systolic blood pressure 58 mmHg) and does not improve despite rapid infusion of
warmed crystalloid fluids. The next most appropriate step is to:
A. Immediate laparotomy
B. Abdominal CT scan
C. Abdominal ultrasonography (FAST)
D. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)
Ans: A. Immediate laparotomy
Explanation:
, • In the setting of penetrating abdominal trauma with persistent hypotension, the
priority is to control hemorrhage surgically.
• Diagnostic imaging (CT, FAST, DPL) is not indicated when the patient is profoundly
unstable and in obvious need of operative intervention.
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5. A 42-year-old man is trapped for several hours under an overturned tractor. He
was alert initially, but now is unconscious and shows no movement of his lower
extremities (even to painful stimuli). The most likely cause of this lower-extremity
finding is:
A. Pelvic fracture
B. Central cord syndrome
C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
D. Bilateral compartment syndrome
Ans: D. Bilateral compartment syndrome
Explanation:
• Prolonged entrapment can lead to crush injury and compartment syndrome in the
lower extremities.
• Absence of movement and persistent neurological deficits in both legs can be
explained by compromised tissue perfusion and increased compartment pressures.
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6. A 6-year-old boy is struck by an automobile and brought to the ED. He is
lethargic with a systolic BP of 90 mmHg, HR 140 bpm, and RR 36 breaths per
minute. The preferred route of venous access in this child is:
A. Percutaneous femoral vein cannulation
B. Intraosseous access in the proximal tibia
C. Percutaneous peripheral vein in the upper extremities
10th Edition Post Test
Actual Questions and Answers
100% Guaranteed Pass
This Exam contains:
100% Guaranteed Pass.
Multiple-Choice (A–D), For Each Question.
Each Question Includes The Correct Answer
Rationale That Aligns with Atls Post Test 2025 Principles.
,────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
1. Which of the following is the recommended method for treating frostbite?
A. Vasodilators
B. Warm water immersion at approximately 40°C
C. Padding and elevation only
D. Application of heat from a hairdryer
Ans: B. Warm water immersion at approximately 40°C
Explanation:
• Rapid rewarming in a circulating water bath at 37–40°C (approx.) is the standard
of care for frostbite management.
• Use of hairdryers or dry heat is contraindicated due to the risk of uneven heating
and tissue damage.
────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
2. Which of the following physical findings suggests a cause of hypotension other
than spinal cord injury?
A. Priapism
B. Bradycardia
C. Diaphragmatic breathing
D. Presence of deep tendon reflexes
Ans: D. Presence of deep tendon reflexes
Explanation:
• Spinal shock typically presents with flaccidity and loss of reflexes below the level
of injury.
• Preserved or brisk deep tendon reflexes suggest that the hypotension is not solely
due to spinal cord injury.
,────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
3. The primary indication for transferring a patient to a higher-level trauma center
is:
A. Unavailability of a surgeon or operating staff
B. Multiple system injuries (including severe head injury)
C. Resource limitations as determined by the transferring doctor
D. Widened mediastinum on chest X-ray after blunt trauma
Ans: C. Resource limitations as determined by the transferring doctor
Explanation:
• Transfer is indicated when the current facility lacks the necessary resources—
clinical expertise, specialist availability, or equipment—to manage the patient
effectively.
• The decision rests with the physician responsible for the patient’s care, based on
local capabilities.
────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
4. A young man has a gunshot wound to the mid-abdomen. He arrives hypotensive
(systolic blood pressure 58 mmHg) and does not improve despite rapid infusion of
warmed crystalloid fluids. The next most appropriate step is to:
A. Immediate laparotomy
B. Abdominal CT scan
C. Abdominal ultrasonography (FAST)
D. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)
Ans: A. Immediate laparotomy
Explanation:
, • In the setting of penetrating abdominal trauma with persistent hypotension, the
priority is to control hemorrhage surgically.
• Diagnostic imaging (CT, FAST, DPL) is not indicated when the patient is profoundly
unstable and in obvious need of operative intervention.
────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
5. A 42-year-old man is trapped for several hours under an overturned tractor. He
was alert initially, but now is unconscious and shows no movement of his lower
extremities (even to painful stimuli). The most likely cause of this lower-extremity
finding is:
A. Pelvic fracture
B. Central cord syndrome
C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
D. Bilateral compartment syndrome
Ans: D. Bilateral compartment syndrome
Explanation:
• Prolonged entrapment can lead to crush injury and compartment syndrome in the
lower extremities.
• Absence of movement and persistent neurological deficits in both legs can be
explained by compromised tissue perfusion and increased compartment pressures.
────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
6. A 6-year-old boy is struck by an automobile and brought to the ED. He is
lethargic with a systolic BP of 90 mmHg, HR 140 bpm, and RR 36 breaths per
minute. The preferred route of venous access in this child is:
A. Percutaneous femoral vein cannulation
B. Intraosseous access in the proximal tibia
C. Percutaneous peripheral vein in the upper extremities
