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ATI RN Nutrition Final Exam 2025 – Verified Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Already Graded A

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ATI RN Nutrition Final Exam 2025 – Verified Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Already Graded A

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ATI RN Nutrition
Course
ATI RN Nutrition

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ATI RN Nutrition Final Exam 2025 –
Verified Questions with 100% Correct
Answers | Already Graded A
Question 1
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus asks about carbohydrate intake. The nurse recommends:
A. Unlimited simple sugars.
B. Consistent carbohydrate intake with complex carbs.
C. Avoiding all carbohydrates.
D. High-sugar snacks between meals.

Rationale: Consistent carbohydrate intake, emphasizing complex carbohydrates (e.g., whole
grains), stabilizes blood glucose levels, per diabetes dietary guidelines. Simple sugars cause
rapid glucose spikes.

Question 2
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4 should limit intake of:
A. Carbohydrates.
B. Potassium-rich foods.
C. Calcium supplements.
D. Unsaturated fats.

Rationale: CKD impairs potassium excretion, risking hyperkalemia; limiting foods like bananas
and potatoes is essential, per renal dietary restrictions.

Question 3
A client post-myocardial infarction is advised to follow a:
A. High-sodium diet.
B. Low-fat, heart-healthy diet.
C. High-cholesterol diet.
D. Low-protein diet.

Rationale: A heart-healthy diet low in saturated fats and cholesterol reduces cardiovascular risk,
per American Heart Association guidelines.

Question 4

,A client with celiac disease should avoid:
A. Rice.
B. Wheat-based products.
C. Corn.
D. Quinoa.

Rationale: Gluten in wheat triggers intestinal damage in celiac disease; gluten-free grains like
rice and quinoa are safe, per gastroenterology dietary management.

Question 5
A client with dysphagia is at risk for:
A. Overhydration.
B. Aspiration pneumonia.
C. Hyperglycemia.
D. Constipation.

Rationale: Difficulty swallowing increases aspiration risk, necessitating thickened liquids and
modified textures, per dysphagia safety protocols.

Question 6
A client with iron-deficiency anemia is taught to take iron supplements with:
A. Milk.
B. Vitamin C-rich juice.
C. Tea.
D. Antacids.

Rationale: Vitamin C enhances iron absorption by reducing ferric to ferrous iron, while
inhibitors like calcium in milk reduce efficacy, per hematology nutrition education.

Question 7
A client with hypertension should limit daily sodium intake to:
A. 5,000 mg.
B. 1,500–2,300 mg.
C. 3,500 mg.
D. No limit.

Rationale: The DASH diet recommends 1,500–2,300 mg sodium daily to lower blood pressure,
per hypertension management guidelines.

Question 8

, A client with diverticulitis in remission is advised to consume:
A. Popcorn.
B. High-fiber foods like whole grains.
C. Low-fiber diet permanently.
D. Nuts and seeds.

Rationale: High-fiber diets prevent diverticulitis recurrence by promoting bowel regularity, per
gastrointestinal dietary recommendations.

Question 9
A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) develops hyperglycemia. The nurse
anticipates:
A. Increasing dextrose concentration.
B. Insulin administration per protocol.
C. Stopping TPN immediately.
D. Adding lipids only.

Rationale: TPN high in dextrose can cause hyperglycemia; insulin corrects glucose levels, per
nutritional support protocols.

Question 10
A client with lactose intolerance should avoid:
A. Soy milk.
B. Cow’s milk.
C. Rice milk.
D. Almond milk.

Rationale: Lactose in dairy triggers symptoms in lactose intolerance; plant-based milks are safe
alternatives, per dietary intolerance education.

Question 11
A client with heart failure is taught to monitor:
A. Carbohydrate intake.
B. Fluid and sodium intake.
C. Protein restriction.
D. Vitamin C levels.

Rationale: Fluid and sodium restriction prevent fluid overload and edema in heart failure, per
cardiology dietary guidelines.

Question 12

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