TEST BANK
NR 602 Final Exam Study Guide + Bonus of most tested
100 questions with multi choices and rationale –
Chamberlain College of Nursing ALL Questions &
Answers , Verified A+ (Verified Q&A Pack)
Question:
Which one best describes lesions associated with condyloma acuminatum?
a. Verruciform
b. Plaque-like
c. Vesicular
d. Bullous
✔ Answer: a. Verruciform
,Question:
A 39-year-old female has completed a course of amoxicillin for strep throat. LMP
was 2 weeks ago and normal. On exam, there is erythema of external genitalia
with a small amount of white discharge. Microscopic wet prep reveals few clue
cells but many budding hyphae. No WBCs. Which would be the most appropriate
treatment?
a. Metronidazole 500 mg BID × 7 days
b. OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID
c. Fluconazole 150 mg × 1 dose
d. Erythromycin 500 mg TID × 10 days
✔ Answer: c. Fluconazole 150 mg × 1 dose
Question:
A woman complains of vaginal itching and white discharge. She is in good health
except for recent antibiotics for strep throat. Pelvic exam reveals tender
vulvovaginal area with edema and non-malodorous white patches. Which is the
most likely cause?
a. Bacterial vaginosis
b. Trichomonas
c. Lactobacillus overgrowth
d. Candidiasis
✔ Answer: d. Candidiasis
Question:
An 18-year-old female complains of secondary amenorrhea. On exam, secondary
sex characteristics and genitalia are normal. Pregnancy is ruled out. What would
necessitate further evaluation?
a. Elevated blood cholesterol levels
b. Androgen deficiency
,c. Galactorrhea
d. Hirsutism
✔ Answer: c. Galactorrhea
Question:
Primary amenorrhea is best described as:
a. Cessation of menstruation × 6 months
b. Failure of menstruation to occur by 17 years old
c. Failure of menstruation to occur by 13 years old
d. Cessation of menstruation × 6 months after menarche
✔ Answer: c. Failure of menstruation to occur by 13 years old
Question:
A 25-year-old female complains of vaginal irritation and discharge. On exam, the
cervix is easily friable and erythematous. No adnexal tenderness. Wet prep reveals
mobile protozoa on NS slide. This most likely represents:
a. Trichomonas
b. Mucopurulent cervicitis
c. Bacterial vaginosis
d. Gonorrhea
✔ Answer: a. Trichomonas
Question:
A 24-year-old female is diagnosed with primary dysmenorrhea. Which medication
would be used as first-line to help control symptoms?
a. Antianxiety medications
b. Progesterone-only contraception
, c. Oral steroids
d. NSAIDs
✔ Answer: d. NSAIDs
Question:
A 16-year-old female has a history of secondary amenorrhea. Menarche at 10
years old, regular cycles × 2 years, has not menstruated × 4 years. What is the
most frequent etiology of this problem?
a. Eating disorder
b. Pregnancy
c. Anovulatory cycles
d. Stress
✔ Answer: a. Eating disorder
Question:
Treatment options for condyloma acuminatum include:
a. Imiquimod (Aldara)
b. Azithromycin
c. Acyclovir
d. Metronidazole
✔ Answer: a. Imiquimod (Aldara)
Question:
A 25-year-old postmenopausal female complains of pain in the upper outer
quadrant of her left breast × 1 month. Best course of action would be:
a. Reassure the patient that pain is often not a presenting symptom of breast
cancer
NR 602 Final Exam Study Guide + Bonus of most tested
100 questions with multi choices and rationale –
Chamberlain College of Nursing ALL Questions &
Answers , Verified A+ (Verified Q&A Pack)
Question:
Which one best describes lesions associated with condyloma acuminatum?
a. Verruciform
b. Plaque-like
c. Vesicular
d. Bullous
✔ Answer: a. Verruciform
,Question:
A 39-year-old female has completed a course of amoxicillin for strep throat. LMP
was 2 weeks ago and normal. On exam, there is erythema of external genitalia
with a small amount of white discharge. Microscopic wet prep reveals few clue
cells but many budding hyphae. No WBCs. Which would be the most appropriate
treatment?
a. Metronidazole 500 mg BID × 7 days
b. OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID
c. Fluconazole 150 mg × 1 dose
d. Erythromycin 500 mg TID × 10 days
✔ Answer: c. Fluconazole 150 mg × 1 dose
Question:
A woman complains of vaginal itching and white discharge. She is in good health
except for recent antibiotics for strep throat. Pelvic exam reveals tender
vulvovaginal area with edema and non-malodorous white patches. Which is the
most likely cause?
a. Bacterial vaginosis
b. Trichomonas
c. Lactobacillus overgrowth
d. Candidiasis
✔ Answer: d. Candidiasis
Question:
An 18-year-old female complains of secondary amenorrhea. On exam, secondary
sex characteristics and genitalia are normal. Pregnancy is ruled out. What would
necessitate further evaluation?
a. Elevated blood cholesterol levels
b. Androgen deficiency
,c. Galactorrhea
d. Hirsutism
✔ Answer: c. Galactorrhea
Question:
Primary amenorrhea is best described as:
a. Cessation of menstruation × 6 months
b. Failure of menstruation to occur by 17 years old
c. Failure of menstruation to occur by 13 years old
d. Cessation of menstruation × 6 months after menarche
✔ Answer: c. Failure of menstruation to occur by 13 years old
Question:
A 25-year-old female complains of vaginal irritation and discharge. On exam, the
cervix is easily friable and erythematous. No adnexal tenderness. Wet prep reveals
mobile protozoa on NS slide. This most likely represents:
a. Trichomonas
b. Mucopurulent cervicitis
c. Bacterial vaginosis
d. Gonorrhea
✔ Answer: a. Trichomonas
Question:
A 24-year-old female is diagnosed with primary dysmenorrhea. Which medication
would be used as first-line to help control symptoms?
a. Antianxiety medications
b. Progesterone-only contraception
, c. Oral steroids
d. NSAIDs
✔ Answer: d. NSAIDs
Question:
A 16-year-old female has a history of secondary amenorrhea. Menarche at 10
years old, regular cycles × 2 years, has not menstruated × 4 years. What is the
most frequent etiology of this problem?
a. Eating disorder
b. Pregnancy
c. Anovulatory cycles
d. Stress
✔ Answer: a. Eating disorder
Question:
Treatment options for condyloma acuminatum include:
a. Imiquimod (Aldara)
b. Azithromycin
c. Acyclovir
d. Metronidazole
✔ Answer: a. Imiquimod (Aldara)
Question:
A 25-year-old postmenopausal female complains of pain in the upper outer
quadrant of her left breast × 1 month. Best course of action would be:
a. Reassure the patient that pain is often not a presenting symptom of breast
cancer
