NSG 6020 Midterm Exam 2025/2026 | 120
Questions with Verified & 100% Correct Answers
(Graded A+)
NSG 6020 Advanced Health Assessment – South University | Key Concepts: Comprehensive
Health Histories, Physical Examination Techniques, Diagnostic Reasoning, Advanced
Assessment Skills for Adult & Pediatric Populations, Cultural Competence, and Clinical
Decision-Making | Expert-Verified Q&A | Course & Exam-Ready
Introduction
This updated 2025/2026 NSG 6020 Midterm Exam resource provides 120 fully verified
questions with 100% correct answers. Content covers health assessment foundations including
detailed history taking, advanced physical exam skills, diagnostic reasoning, patient
communication, documentation, and integration of cultural and developmental considerations
into clinical practice. All answers are graded A+ and ensure complete preparation for South
University NSG 6020 Midterm exam success.
Answer Format
All correct answers are highlighted in bold and green, with rationales that explain advanced
health assessment principles, reinforce safe patient-centered practices, and strengthen
diagnostic decision-making for exam readiness.
Questions 1–120
1. What is the primary purpose of a comprehensive health history?
a) To diagnose a specific condition
b) To gather holistic data for clinical decision-making
c) To document vital signs
d) To perform a physical exam
b) To gather holistic data for clinical decision-making
Rationale: A comprehensive health history collects detailed patient information, including
medical, social, and family history, to guide clinical decisions and formulate a care plan.
2. Which component is included in the Review of Systems (ROS)?
a) Blood pressure measurement
b) Patient’s symptoms across body systems
c) Medication reconciliation
d) Physical exam findings
b) Patient’s symptoms across body systems
,Rationale: The ROS systematically assesses symptoms across all body systems to identify
potential health issues not mentioned in the chief complaint.
3. What does the acronym OLDCARTS stand for in symptom analysis?
a) Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating factors, Relieving factors, Timing,
Severity
b) Observation, Listening, Documentation, Coordination, Assessment, Review, Treatment,
Systems
c) Objective, Location, Diagnosis, Condition, Analysis, Response, Timing, Symptoms
d) Onset, Likelihood, Duration, Complications, Actions, Reactions, Testing, Signs
a) Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating factors, Relieving
factors, Timing, Severity
Rationale: OLDCARTS is a mnemonic used to thoroughly analyze patient symptoms during
history taking.
4. What is the correct sequence for a physical examination?
a) Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
b) Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
c) Auscultation, percussion, inspection, palpation
d) Percussion, auscultation, palpation, inspection
b) Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
Rationale: The standard sequence ensures accurate findings, with auscultation performed last
to avoid altering sounds, especially in abdominal exams.
5. What is the purpose of cultural competence in health assessment?
a) To standardize all patient assessments
b) To respect and integrate patients’ cultural beliefs
c) To reduce examination time
d) To focus only on physical findings
b) To respect and integrate patients’ cultural beliefs
Rationale: Cultural competence enhances patient trust and ensures assessments respect
cultural values, improving communication and care outcomes.
6. Which heart sound is heard during systole?
a) S3
b) S4
c) S1
d) Murmur
c) S1
Rationale: S1, caused by mitral and tricuspid valve closure, marks the start of systole during
ventricular contraction.
7. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
a) 8–12 breaths per minute
b) 12–20 breaths per minute
c) 20–30 breaths per minute
, d) 30–40 breaths per minute
b) 12–20 breaths per minute
Rationale: The normal adult respiratory rate at rest is 12–20 breaths per minute, per standard
health assessment guidelines.
8. What does a bruit indicate when auscultating the carotid artery?
a) Normal blood flow
b) Possible arterial narrowing
c) Heart valve dysfunction
d) Respiratory obstruction
b) Possible arterial narrowing
Rationale: A bruit suggests turbulent blood flow, often due to arterial stenosis or occlusion,
requiring further evaluation.
9. Which technique is used to assess for costovertebral angle (CVA)
tenderness?
a) Inspection
b) Palpation
c) Percussion
d) Auscultation
c) Percussion
Rationale: Percussion over the CVA assesses for kidney tenderness, often indicating
pyelonephritis or renal pathology.
10. What is the significance of a positive Romberg test?
a) Visual impairment
b) Peripheral neuropathy or balance issues
c) Muscle weakness
d) Joint instability
b) Peripheral neuropathy or balance issues
Rationale: A positive Romberg test, with swaying or falling when eyes are closed, indicates
impaired proprioception or vestibular function.
11. What is the purpose of the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)?
a) Assess cardiovascular function
b) Evaluate cognitive function
c) Test muscle strength
d) Measure respiratory capacity
b) Evaluate cognitive function
Rationale: The MMSE screens for cognitive impairment, assessing memory, orientation, and
attention.
12. What is a common finding in a patient with pneumonia during chest
auscultation?
a) Wheezes
b) Crackles
Questions with Verified & 100% Correct Answers
(Graded A+)
NSG 6020 Advanced Health Assessment – South University | Key Concepts: Comprehensive
Health Histories, Physical Examination Techniques, Diagnostic Reasoning, Advanced
Assessment Skills for Adult & Pediatric Populations, Cultural Competence, and Clinical
Decision-Making | Expert-Verified Q&A | Course & Exam-Ready
Introduction
This updated 2025/2026 NSG 6020 Midterm Exam resource provides 120 fully verified
questions with 100% correct answers. Content covers health assessment foundations including
detailed history taking, advanced physical exam skills, diagnostic reasoning, patient
communication, documentation, and integration of cultural and developmental considerations
into clinical practice. All answers are graded A+ and ensure complete preparation for South
University NSG 6020 Midterm exam success.
Answer Format
All correct answers are highlighted in bold and green, with rationales that explain advanced
health assessment principles, reinforce safe patient-centered practices, and strengthen
diagnostic decision-making for exam readiness.
Questions 1–120
1. What is the primary purpose of a comprehensive health history?
a) To diagnose a specific condition
b) To gather holistic data for clinical decision-making
c) To document vital signs
d) To perform a physical exam
b) To gather holistic data for clinical decision-making
Rationale: A comprehensive health history collects detailed patient information, including
medical, social, and family history, to guide clinical decisions and formulate a care plan.
2. Which component is included in the Review of Systems (ROS)?
a) Blood pressure measurement
b) Patient’s symptoms across body systems
c) Medication reconciliation
d) Physical exam findings
b) Patient’s symptoms across body systems
,Rationale: The ROS systematically assesses symptoms across all body systems to identify
potential health issues not mentioned in the chief complaint.
3. What does the acronym OLDCARTS stand for in symptom analysis?
a) Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating factors, Relieving factors, Timing,
Severity
b) Observation, Listening, Documentation, Coordination, Assessment, Review, Treatment,
Systems
c) Objective, Location, Diagnosis, Condition, Analysis, Response, Timing, Symptoms
d) Onset, Likelihood, Duration, Complications, Actions, Reactions, Testing, Signs
a) Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating factors, Relieving
factors, Timing, Severity
Rationale: OLDCARTS is a mnemonic used to thoroughly analyze patient symptoms during
history taking.
4. What is the correct sequence for a physical examination?
a) Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
b) Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
c) Auscultation, percussion, inspection, palpation
d) Percussion, auscultation, palpation, inspection
b) Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
Rationale: The standard sequence ensures accurate findings, with auscultation performed last
to avoid altering sounds, especially in abdominal exams.
5. What is the purpose of cultural competence in health assessment?
a) To standardize all patient assessments
b) To respect and integrate patients’ cultural beliefs
c) To reduce examination time
d) To focus only on physical findings
b) To respect and integrate patients’ cultural beliefs
Rationale: Cultural competence enhances patient trust and ensures assessments respect
cultural values, improving communication and care outcomes.
6. Which heart sound is heard during systole?
a) S3
b) S4
c) S1
d) Murmur
c) S1
Rationale: S1, caused by mitral and tricuspid valve closure, marks the start of systole during
ventricular contraction.
7. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
a) 8–12 breaths per minute
b) 12–20 breaths per minute
c) 20–30 breaths per minute
, d) 30–40 breaths per minute
b) 12–20 breaths per minute
Rationale: The normal adult respiratory rate at rest is 12–20 breaths per minute, per standard
health assessment guidelines.
8. What does a bruit indicate when auscultating the carotid artery?
a) Normal blood flow
b) Possible arterial narrowing
c) Heart valve dysfunction
d) Respiratory obstruction
b) Possible arterial narrowing
Rationale: A bruit suggests turbulent blood flow, often due to arterial stenosis or occlusion,
requiring further evaluation.
9. Which technique is used to assess for costovertebral angle (CVA)
tenderness?
a) Inspection
b) Palpation
c) Percussion
d) Auscultation
c) Percussion
Rationale: Percussion over the CVA assesses for kidney tenderness, often indicating
pyelonephritis or renal pathology.
10. What is the significance of a positive Romberg test?
a) Visual impairment
b) Peripheral neuropathy or balance issues
c) Muscle weakness
d) Joint instability
b) Peripheral neuropathy or balance issues
Rationale: A positive Romberg test, with swaying or falling when eyes are closed, indicates
impaired proprioception or vestibular function.
11. What is the purpose of the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)?
a) Assess cardiovascular function
b) Evaluate cognitive function
c) Test muscle strength
d) Measure respiratory capacity
b) Evaluate cognitive function
Rationale: The MMSE screens for cognitive impairment, assessing memory, orientation, and
attention.
12. What is a common finding in a patient with pneumonia during chest
auscultation?
a) Wheezes
b) Crackles
