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AANP FNP Certification Exam Package 2025/2026 | Complete Solution with High-Yield Questions & Correct Answers

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This document provides a complete exam package for the AANP Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) Certification Exam, updated for the 2025/2026 cycle. It includes high-yield questions with 100% correct answers covering advanced health assessment, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and primary care management across the lifespan. Key domains include preventive care, pediatrics, adult and geriatric care, women’s health, and professional standards. Expert-verified and clinically aligned, this package ensures exam readiness and certification success.

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September 2, 2025
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Written in
2025/2026
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AANP FNP Certification Exam Package
2025/2026 | Complete Solution with High-Yield
Questions & Correct Answers​
AANP Family Nurse Practitioner Certification Exam | Key Concepts: Advanced Health
Assessment, Pathophysiology, Pharmacology, Primary Care Management, Preventive Care,
Pediatrics, Adult & Geriatric Care, Women’s Health, and Professional Standards |
Expert-Verified Q&A | Clinical & Exam-Ready




Introduction​
This updated 2025/2026 AANP FNP Certification Exam Package provides a complete and fully
verified resource with 180 high-yield practice questions and 100% correct answers. Content
covers advanced practice nursing, including diagnostic reasoning, pharmacotherapeutics,
evidence-based interventions, health promotion, chronic disease management, and lifespan
patient care. All answers are graded A+ and include detailed rationales to ensure comprehensive
preparation for Family Nurse Practitioner certification exam success and to equip candidates
with evidence-based clinical skills.

Answer Format​
All correct answers are highlighted in bold and green, with rationales that explain FNP
clinical priorities, reinforce safe prescribing and care management, and strengthen advanced
practice decision-making skills for exam readiness.



AANP FNP Certification Exam Practice Questions (1–180)
1. A 45-year-old male presents with a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?​
a) Prescribe a beta-blocker immediately​
b) Recommend lifestyle modifications and follow-up in 4 weeks​
c) Order an echocardiogram​
d) Initiate a diuretic and an ACE inhibitor​
b) Recommend lifestyle modifications and follow-up in 4 weeks​
Rationale: Per JNC 8 and 2025 AANP guidelines, stage 1 hypertension (140–159/90–99
mmHg) should initially be managed with lifestyle modifications (e.g., diet, exercise, sodium
reduction) and close follow-up, unless compelling indications exist.

2. Which medication is contraindicated in a patient with a sulfa allergy?​
a) Lisinopril​
b) Furosemide​

,c) Metformin​
d) Atorvastatin​
b) Furosemide​
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, contains a sulfa moiety and is contraindicated in
patients with sulfa allergies due to the risk of cross-reactivity, per 2025 pharmacology
standards.

3. A 6-year-old child presents with a fever and a red, non-blanching rash.
What is the most concerning diagnosis to consider?​
a) Scarlet fever​
b) Meningococcemia​
c) Roseola​
d) Fifth disease​
b) Meningococcemia​
Rationale: A non-blanching rash with fever in a child raises concern for meningococcemia, a
life-threatening condition requiring urgent evaluation and treatment, per AANP pediatrics
guidelines.

4. What is the first-line treatment for a 30-year-old woman with
uncomplicated urinary tract infection?​
a) Amoxicillin for 7 days​
b) Nitrofurantoin for 5 days​
c) Ciprofloxacin for 3 days​
d) Doxycycline for 7 days​
b) Nitrofurantoin for 5 days​
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTI in women, per 2025
Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) and AANP guidelines, due to efficacy and low
resistance rates.

5. A 65-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 8.5%. What is the
most appropriate next step?​
a) Continue current therapy​
b) Add a second oral hypoglycemic agent​
c) Switch to insulin therapy​
d) Discontinue all medications​
b) Add a second oral hypoglycemic agent​
Rationale: For an A1C >7% in type 2 diabetes, adding a second oral agent (e.g., SGLT2 inhibitor
or DPP-4 inhibitor) is recommended before escalating to insulin, per 2025 ADA and AANP
guidelines.

6. Which vaccine is recommended annually for all adults, unless
contraindicated?​
a) Pneumococcal vaccine​
b) Influenza vaccine​
c) Tdap vaccine​

,d) Hepatitis B vaccine​
b) Influenza vaccine​
Rationale: The CDC and AANP recommend annual influenza vaccination for all adults to
prevent seasonal flu, unless contraindicated.

7. A 28-year-old female presents with heavy menstrual bleeding. What is the
first-line treatment for menorrhagia in a patient with no contraindications?​
a) Oral contraceptives​
b) Hysterectomy​
c) Iron supplementation alone​
d) Endometrial ablation​
a) Oral contraceptives​
Rationale: Oral contraceptives are the first-line treatment for menorrhagia in women without
contraindications, as they regulate bleeding and reduce volume, per 2025 ACOG and AANP
guidelines.

8. What is the most appropriate screening test for colorectal cancer in a
50-year-old patient with average risk?​
a) Fecal occult blood test annually​
b) Colonoscopy every 10 years​
c) Sigmoidoscopy every 3 years​
d) CT colonography every year​
b) Colonoscopy every 10 years​
Rationale: For average-risk adults starting at age 45, a colonoscopy every 10 years is the
preferred screening method, per 2025 USPSTF and AANP guidelines.

9. A 70-year-old male with COPD presents with increased dyspnea. Which
medication is most appropriate for acute exacerbation?​
a) Albuterol inhaler​
b) Oral prednisone​
c) Montelukast​
d) Fluticasone inhaler​
b) Oral prednisone​
Rationale: Systemic corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone) are recommended for acute COPD
exacerbations to reduce inflammation, per 2025 GOLD and AANP guidelines.

10. What is the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis in children?​
a) Staphylococcus aureus​
b) Streptococcus pyogenes​
c) Haemophilus influenzae​
d) Moraxella catarrhalis​
b) Streptococcus pyogenes​
Rationale: Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus) is the most common cause of
bacterial pharyngitis in children, per 2025 pediatric guidelines.

, 11. A 55-year-old female presents with fatigue and weight gain. Her TSH is
6.5 mIU/L. What is the most appropriate next step?​
a) Start levothyroxine​
b) Repeat TSH in 3 months​
c) Order thyroid ultrasound​
d) Refer to endocrinology​
b) Repeat TSH in 3 months​
Rationale: Subclinical hypothyroidism (TSH 4.5–10 mIU/L with normal T4) requires
monitoring with repeat TSH in 2–3 months before initiating treatment, per 2025 AANP and
ATA guidelines.

12. Which class of medications is first-line for managing generalized anxiety
disorder?​
a) Benzodiazepines​
b) SSRIs​
c) Antipsychotics​
d) Beta-blockers​
b) SSRIs​
Rationale: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are first-line for generalized anxiety
disorder due to efficacy and safety, per 2025 APA and AANP guidelines.

13. A 3-year-old child has a fever of 102°F and is irritable. What is the most
appropriate antipyretic dose?​
a) Acetaminophen 15 mg/kg every 4–6 hours​
b) Ibuprofen 20 mg/kg every 6–8 hours​
c) Aspirin 10 mg/kg every 4 hours​
d) Naproxen 5 mg/kg every 12 hours​
a) Acetaminophen 15 mg/kg every 4–6 hours​
Rationale: Acetaminophen 10–15 mg/kg every 4–6 hours is the preferred antipyretic for
children due to safety, per 2025 AAP and AANP guidelines. Aspirin is avoided due to Reye’s
syndrome risk.

14. What is the most appropriate screening for cervical cancer in a
35-year-old woman?​
a) Pap smear annually​
b) Pap smear with HPV co-testing every 5 years​
c) HPV testing annually​
d) No screening until age 40​
b) Pap smear with HPV co-testing every 5 years​
Rationale: For women aged 30–65, Pap smear with HPV co-testing every 5 years is
recommended, per 2025 USPSTF and AANP guidelines.

15. A 60-year-old male with heart failure presents with worsening edema.
Which medication should be adjusted?​
a) Metoprolol​

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