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1. A patient presents with red, dry skin, no blisters, and pain after sun exposure. This
burn is classified as:
A. Superficial partial-thickness C. Superficial (first-degree)
B. Deep partial-thickness D. Full-thickness
2. Which burn type is characterized by destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and
possible subcutaneous tissue with no pain sensation?
A. Deep partial-thickness C. Superficial
B. Full-thickness D. Superficial partial-thickness
3. Using the Rule of Nines, the percentage TBSA for an adult with burns on the entire
left leg and anterior torso is:
A. 27% C. 45%
B. 36% D. 54%
4. Which priority does the emergent phase of burn care focus on?
A. Scar management C. Fluid resuscitation and airway
B. Range-of-motion exercises D. Skin grafting
5. Which is a hallmark of deep partial-thickness burns?
A. Moist, red, blistered surface C. Leathery, dry, painless surface
B. Waxy, pale surface with reduced pain D. Redness with no blistering
6. The Parkland formula for fluid resuscitation in an electrical burn is:
A. 4 mL × weight (kg) × %TBSA burned C. 5 mL × weight (kg) × %TBSA burned
B. 2 mL × weight (kg) × %TBSA burned D. 4 mL × weight (lb.) × %TBSA burned
7. A patient weighs 70 kg and has 30% TBSA burns. According to the Parkland formula
for an electrical burn, how much fluid should be given in the first 8 hours?
A. 4,200 mL C. 6,000 mL
B. 8,400 mL D. 9,600 mL
, 2
8. Inhalation injury is suspected when the patient has:
A. Blistered lips C. Blanchable erythema
B. Singed nasal hairs and soot in the D. Moist, red skin
mouth
9. (SATA) Complications of major burns include:
A. Hypovolemic shock D. Compartment syndrome
B. Airway compromise E. Contractures
C. Hypoglycemia
10. Atelectasis most often occurs:
A. After chest tube insertion C. After pneumothorax resolution
B. Post-operatively, d/t shallow breathing D. Only in chronic smokers
11. Which intervention prevents atelectasis?
A. Strict bed rest C. Supine positioning
B. Incentive spirometry every 1–2 hrs. D. Avoiding coughing
while awake
12. Hospital-acquired pneumonia develops:
A. Within 24 hours of admission C. Only after intubation
B. After 48 hours of admission D. In immunocompromised patients only
13. (SATA) Which are part of the VAP prevention bundle?
A. HOB 30–45° D. Routine tracheostomy changes daily
B. Oral care with chlorhexidine E. DVT prophylaxis
C. Daily sedation vacation
14. Acute respiratory failure is defined by:
A. PaO₂ < 60 or PaCO₂ > 50 C. PaO₂ > 100 or PaCO₂ > 60
B. PaO₂ < 80 or PaCO₂ < 30 D. PaO₂ > 80 and PaCO₂ < 35
15. A hallmark of ARDS is:
1. A patient presents with red, dry skin, no blisters, and pain after sun exposure. This
burn is classified as:
A. Superficial partial-thickness C. Superficial (first-degree)
B. Deep partial-thickness D. Full-thickness
2. Which burn type is characterized by destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and
possible subcutaneous tissue with no pain sensation?
A. Deep partial-thickness C. Superficial
B. Full-thickness D. Superficial partial-thickness
3. Using the Rule of Nines, the percentage TBSA for an adult with burns on the entire
left leg and anterior torso is:
A. 27% C. 45%
B. 36% D. 54%
4. Which priority does the emergent phase of burn care focus on?
A. Scar management C. Fluid resuscitation and airway
B. Range-of-motion exercises D. Skin grafting
5. Which is a hallmark of deep partial-thickness burns?
A. Moist, red, blistered surface C. Leathery, dry, painless surface
B. Waxy, pale surface with reduced pain D. Redness with no blistering
6. The Parkland formula for fluid resuscitation in an electrical burn is:
A. 4 mL × weight (kg) × %TBSA burned C. 5 mL × weight (kg) × %TBSA burned
B. 2 mL × weight (kg) × %TBSA burned D. 4 mL × weight (lb.) × %TBSA burned
7. A patient weighs 70 kg and has 30% TBSA burns. According to the Parkland formula
for an electrical burn, how much fluid should be given in the first 8 hours?
A. 4,200 mL C. 6,000 mL
B. 8,400 mL D. 9,600 mL
, 2
8. Inhalation injury is suspected when the patient has:
A. Blistered lips C. Blanchable erythema
B. Singed nasal hairs and soot in the D. Moist, red skin
mouth
9. (SATA) Complications of major burns include:
A. Hypovolemic shock D. Compartment syndrome
B. Airway compromise E. Contractures
C. Hypoglycemia
10. Atelectasis most often occurs:
A. After chest tube insertion C. After pneumothorax resolution
B. Post-operatively, d/t shallow breathing D. Only in chronic smokers
11. Which intervention prevents atelectasis?
A. Strict bed rest C. Supine positioning
B. Incentive spirometry every 1–2 hrs. D. Avoiding coughing
while awake
12. Hospital-acquired pneumonia develops:
A. Within 24 hours of admission C. Only after intubation
B. After 48 hours of admission D. In immunocompromised patients only
13. (SATA) Which are part of the VAP prevention bundle?
A. HOB 30–45° D. Routine tracheostomy changes daily
B. Oral care with chlorhexidine E. DVT prophylaxis
C. Daily sedation vacation
14. Acute respiratory failure is defined by:
A. PaO₂ < 60 or PaCO₂ > 50 C. PaO₂ > 100 or PaCO₂ > 60
B. PaO₂ < 80 or PaCO₂ < 30 D. PaO₂ > 80 and PaCO₂ < 35
15. A hallmark of ARDS is:
