NCLEX-RN V12 Test Bank Actual Exam
Questions & Answers with Explanations
100% Verified Answers. (2025–2026)
NO.1 Prior to an amniocentesis, a fetal ultrasound is done in order to:
A. Evaluate fetal lung maturity
B. Evaluate the amount of amniotic fluid
C. Locate the position of the placenta and fetus
D. Ensure that the fetus is mature enough to perform the amniocentesis
C
Answer: C
Explanation:
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(A) Amniocentesis can be performed to assess for lung maturity. Fetal ultrasound can be used for
gestational dating, although it does not separately determine lung maturity. (B) Ultrasound can
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evaluate amniotic fluid volume, which may be used to determine congenital anomalies. (C)
Amniocentesis involves removal of amniotic fluid for evaluation. The needle, inserted through the
abdomen, is guided by ultrasound to avoid needle injuries, and the test evaluates the position of the
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placenta and the fetus. (D) Amniocentesis can be performed as early as the 15th-17th week of
pregnancy.
NO.2 Cystic fibrosis is transmitted as an autosomal recessive trait. This means that:
A. Mothers carry the gene and pass it to their sons
B. Fathers carry the gene and pass it to their daughters
C. Both parents must have the disease for a child to have the disease
D. Both parents must be carriers for a child to have the disease
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Cystic fibrosis is not an X-linked or sex-linked disease. (B) The only characteristic on the Y
chromosome is the trait for hairy ears. (C) Both parents do not need to have the disease but must be
carriers. (D) If a trait is recessive, two genes (one from each parent) are necessary to produce an
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affected child.
NO.3 A female client has just died. Her family is requesting that all nursing staff leave the room. The
family's religious leader has arrived and is ready to conduct a ceremony for the deceased in the room,
requesting that only family members be present. The nurse assigned to the client should perform the
appropriate nursing action, which might include:
A. Inform the family that it is the hospital's policy not to conduct religious ceremonies in client rooms
.
B. Refuse to leave the room because the client's body is entrusted in the nurse's care until it can be
brought to the morgue.
C. Tell the family that they may conduct their ceremony in the client's room; however, the nurse
must attend.
D. Respect the client's family's wishes.
C
Answer: D
Explanation:
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(A) It is rare that a hospital has a specific policy addressing this particular issue. If the statement is
true, the nurse should show evidence of the policy to the family and suggest alternatives, such as the
hospital chapel. (B) Refusal to leave the room demonstrates a lack of understanding related to the
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family's need to grieve in their own manner. (C) The nurse should leave the room and allow the
family privacy in their grief. (D) The family's wish to conduct a religious ceremony in the client's room
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is part of the grief process. The request is based on specific cultural and religious differences dictating
social customs.
NO.4 A 10-year-old client with a pin in the right femur is immobilized in traction. He is exhibiting
behavioral changes including restlessness, difficulty with problem solving, inability to concentrate on
activities, and monotony. Which of the following nursing implementations would be most effective in
helping him cope with immobility?
A. Providing him with books, challenging puzzles, and games as diversionary activities
B. Allowing him to do as much for himself as he is able, including learning to do pin-site care under
supervision
C. Having a volunteer come in to sit with the client and to read him stories
D. Stimulating rest and relaxation by gentle rubbing with lotion and changing the client's position
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frequently
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) These activities could be frustrating for the client if he is having difficulty with problem solving
and concentration. (B) Selfcare is usually well received by the child, and it is one of the most useful
interventions to help the child cope with immobility. (C) This may be helpful to the client if he has no
visitors, but it does little to help him develop coping skills. (D) This will helpto prevent skin irritation
or breakdown related to immobility but will not help to prevent behavioral changes related to
immobility.
NO.5 A violent client remains in restraints for several hours. Which of the following interventions is
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most appropriate while he is in restraints?
A. Give fluids if the client requests them.
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B. Assess skin integrity and circulation of extremities before applying restraints and as they are
removed.
C. Measure vital signs at least every 4 hours.
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D. Release restraints every 2 hours for client to exercise.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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(A) Fluids (nourishment) should be offered at regular intervals whether the client requests (or
refuses) them or not. (B) Skin integrity and circulation of the extremities should be checked regularly
while the client is restrained, not only before restraints are applied and
after they are removed. (C) Vital signs should be checked at least every 2 hours. If the client remains
agitated in restraints, vital signs should be monitored even more closely, perhaps every 1-2 hours. (D)
Restraints should be released every 2 hours for exercise, one extremity at a time, to maintain muscle
tone, skin and joint integrity, and circulation.
NO.6 The pediatrician has diagnosed tinea capitis in an 8- year-old girl and has placed her on oral
griseofulvin. The nurse should emphasize which of these instructions to the mother and/or child?
A. Administer oral griseofulvin on an empty stomach for best results.
B. Discontinue drug therapy if food tastes funny.
C. May discontinue medication when the child experiences symptomatic relief.
D. Observe for headaches, dizziness, and anorexia.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Giving the drug with or after meals may allay gastrointestinal discomfort. Giving the drug with
afatty meal (ice cream or milk) increases absorption rate. (B) Griseofulvin may alter taste sensations
and thereby decrease the appetite. Monitoring of food intake is important, and inadequate nutrient
intake should be reported to the physician. (C) The child may experience symptomatic relief after
48- 96 hours of therapy. It is important to stress continuing the drug therapy to prevent relapse
(usually about 6 weeks). (D) The incidence of side effects is low; however, headaches are common.
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and anorexia may occur. Dizziness, although uncommon, should be
reported to the physician.
NO.7 A client with cirrhosis of the liver becomes comatose and is started on neomycin 300 mg q6h
via nasogastric tube. The rationale for this therapy is to:
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A. Prevent systemic infection
B. Promote diuresis
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C. Decrease ammonia formation
D. Acidify the small bowel
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Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Neomycin is an antibiotic, but this is not the Rationale for administering it to a client in hepatic
coma. (B) Diuretics and salt-free albumin are used to promote diuresis in clients with cirrhosis of the
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liver. (C) Neomycin destroys the bacteria in the intestines. It is the bacteria in the bowel that break
down protein into ammonia. (D) Lactulose is administered to create an acid environment in the
bowel. Ammonia leaves the blood and migrates to this acidic environment where it is trapped and
excreted.
NO.8 A 5-year-old has just had a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of these nursing measures
should be included in the postoperative care?
A. Encourage the child to cough up blood if present.
B. Give warm clear liquids when fully alert.
C. Have child gargle and do toothbrushing to remove old blood.
D. Observe for evidence of bleeding.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The nurse should discourage the child from coughing, clearing the throat, or putting objects in his