Wilkes University | 2025/2026 Actual Questions
and Verified Correct Answers
Real Exam-Based Questions and Verified Answers | Advanced Practice Psychopharmacology |
Graded A+ | 100% Accuracy
Introduction
This full exam set includes 150 verified questions and correct answers (divided across
Exam 1, Exam 2, and Exam 3) from the NSG 552 Psychopharmacology course at
Wilkes University, updated for the 2025/2026 academic year. Topics span
neurotransmitters, antidepressants, antipsychotics, anxiolytics, mood stabilizers,
pharmacokinetics, adverse effects, and clinical application in psychiatric nurse
practitioner (PMHNP) practice.
Answer Format
All correct answers are clearly marked in bold and green for efficient review and confident
preparation.
NSG 552 Psychopharmacology Exams | 2025/2026 Verified Q&A | 150 Questions |
Graded A+ | PMHNP Clinical Knowledge Excellence
Exam 1: NSG 552 Psychopharmacology
Question 1
What does pharmacokinetics describe?
A) The drug's effect on the body
B) How the body processes the drug
C) The drug's chemical composition
D) The therapeutic outcome
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics involves absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.
Question 2
What is the primary mechanism of first-generation antipsychotics?
A) Block serotonin receptors only
B) Strong D2 receptor blockade
C) Weak D2 receptor binding
D) GABA enhancement
Rationale: They primarily target D2 dopamine receptors, causing extrapyramidal symptoms.
,Question 3
Which antipsychotic is an example of a second-generation (atypical) drug?
A) Haloperidol
B) Risperidone
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Fluphenazine
Rationale: Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic with serotonin receptor activity.
Question 4
What is a common side effect of first-generation antipsychotics?
A) Weight gain
B) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Bradycardia
Rationale: EPS like dystonia and parkinsonism are frequent with these drugs.
Question 5
What is the primary neurotransmitter targeted by SSRIs?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Norepinephrine
D) GABA
Rationale: SSRIs selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake.
Question 6
Which condition is a common indication for mood stabilizers?
A) Anxiety disorders
B) Bipolar disorder
C) Schizophrenia
D) Major depression
Rationale: Mood stabilizers like lithium are used to manage bipolar mood swings.
Question 7
What is a key advantage of second-generation antipsychotics?
A) Lower cost
B) Reduced EPS risk
C) Faster onset
D) Greater D2 affinity
Rationale: Atypical antipsychotics have less EPS due to rapid receptor dissociation.
Question 8
Which drug is a first-line anxiolytic?
A) Haloperidol
B) Lorazepam
C) Lithium
D) Fluoxetine
Rationale: Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are used for acute anxiety.
, Question 9
What is a potential adverse effect of long-term benzodiazepine use?
A) Hypertension
B) Dependence
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Weight loss
Rationale: Dependence is a significant risk with prolonged use.
Question 10
What is the mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition
B) Blockade of norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake
C) Dopamine receptor antagonism
D) GABA enhancement
Rationale: TCAs inhibit reuptake of both norepinephrine and serotonin.
Question 11
Which neurotransmitter imbalance is most associated with schizophrenia?
A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) GABA
D) Acetylcholine
Rationale: Excess dopamine activity is linked to positive symptoms.
Question 12
What is a common side effect of SSRIs?
A) Constipation
B) Sexual dysfunction
C) Hypotension
D) Seizures
Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is a frequent SSRI side effect.
Question 13
Which drug is used to treat acute EPS caused by antipsychotics?
A) Risperidone
B) Benztropine
C) Fluoxetine
D) Valproate
Rationale: Benztropine is an anticholinergic used for EPS.
Question 14
What is a key pharmacokinetic principle affecting drug dosing?
A) Patient height
B) Liver metabolism
C) Skin color
D) Blood type
Rationale: Liver metabolism influences drug clearance and dosing.