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APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 2025 VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+

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APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 2025 VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+

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APEA PREDICTOR EX-AM 2025
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APEA PREDICTOR EX-AM 2025

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July 18, 2025
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Written in
2024/2025
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BESTLEC




APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 2025 VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+



What is the difference between a Parkinsonian tremor and an essential tremor? –

CORRECT ANSWER-a Parkinson tremor is also known as a resting tremor and is seen at rest,
may look like pill-rolling. an essential tremor is bilateral, symmetric and seen when the hands are
doing something


What can worsen and improve an essential tremor?
- CORRECT ANSWER-worsened by stress or fatigue, improved by alcohol



What is first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

- CORRECT ANSWER-carbamazepine(tegretol) or amitriptyline



Are Parkinsonian tremors unilateral or bilateral at first?
- CORRECT ANSWER-unilateral



Where is the TMJ best palpated?
- CORRECT ANSWER-anterior to the tragus



What are the primary bacteria in dog bites?

– CORRECT ANSWER-staph, strep, and pasteurella




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What is the gold standard treatment of giant cell arteritis?

- CORRECT ANSWER-oral steroids and potential artery biopsy by rheum


Cranial Nerve VIII

- CORRECT ANSWER-Acoustic (Hearing and balance)



Cranial nerve IX

- CORRECT ANSWER-Glossopharyngeal- swallowing and rise of the palate, gag reflex



Cranial Nerve XI

- CORRECT ANSWER-Spinal Accessory (upper trapezius)


Deep tendon reflex

- CORRECT ANSWER-Ankle- S1 primarily Knee- Lumbar 2,3,4

Supinator (brachioradialis) -C5,6 BicepTriceps-C6,7



Stroke risk scale

- CORRECT ANSWER-CHADS2C-
Congestive heart failure H-Hypertension

A-Age >75 years D- Diabetes

S-prior Stroke/TIA



In the majority of children, the first permanent teeth start to erupt at the age of 6 years. Which of
the following are the first permanent teeth to erupt in this time period?

A. First Molars

B. Second Molars


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C. Lower or upper incisors

D. Canines - CORRECT ANSWER-A. First Molars



All of the following are classified as activities of daily living (ADLs) except:
A. ability to feed self

B. Ability to manage bladder and bowel elimination

C. Personal hygiene and grooming

D. Grocery Shopping - CORRECT ANSWER-D. Grocery shopping




You note the following result on a routine urinalysis of a 37-year old primigravida who is at 30
weeks gestation. Leukocyte=trace, nitrite=negative, protein=2+, blood=negative. Her weight has
increased by 5 lbs during the past week. Which of the following is most likely?



A. HELLP syndrome

B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (pre-eclampsia)
C. Eclampsia of pregnancy

D. Primary hypertension - CORRECT ANSWER-B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (pre-
eclampsia). Classic triad of symptoms of preeclampsia include hypertension, edema(weight
gain), and proteinuria.



The mother of a 12 month old infant reports to the nurse practitioner that her child had a high
fever for several days, which spontaneously resolved. After the fever resolved, the child
developed a maculopapular rash. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Fifth Disease (erythema infectiosum)

B. Roseola infantum (exanthema subitum)
C. Varicella

D. Infantile maculopapular rashes - CORRECT ANSWER-B. Roseola Infantum
(Exanthemasubitum)


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A 70-year old male patient complains of a bright red-colored spot in his left eye for 2 days. He
denies eye pain, visual changes, or headaches. He has a new onset of cough from a recent viral
upper respiratory infection. The only medicine he is on Bayer aspirin, 1 tablet a day. Which of
the following is most likely?

A. Corneal abrasion

B. Acute bacterial conjunctivitis

C. Acute uveitis

D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage - CORRECT ANSWER-D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage.
Bright redblood in a sharply defined area surrounded by normal-appearing conjunctiva indicates
subconjunctival hemorrhage.



A woman is being evaluated by the nurse practitioner for complaints of dyspareunia. A
microscopy slide reveals a large number of atrophic squamous epithelial cells. The



vaginal pH is 4.0. There are very few leukocytes and no RBCs are seen on the wet smear. Which
of the following is most likely?

A. Atrophic vaginitis

B. Bacterial Vaginosis

C. Trichomoniasis

D. This is a normal finding. - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Atrophic vaginitis. Symptoms of
atrophic vaginitis include painful intercourse, atrophic squamous epithelial cells, and a
decreasein pH. Vaginal atrophy is caused by lack of or imbalance of estrogen. Normal pH of
thevagina is 4.0-5.0 (acidic)



At what level of prevention would you classify for lung cancer?

A. Primary prevention

B. Secondary prevention

C. Tertiary prevention




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