TNCC 10th Edition Final Exam| Questions
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1. A trauma patient presents with a GCS of 6. What should be your priority
action?
a. Establish IV access
b. Administer pain medication
c. Secure the airway
d. Insert a Foley catheter
Rationale: A GCS ≤8 indicates inability to protect the airway. Airway
management is the priority.
2. Which assessment finding suggests a tension pneumothorax?
a. Bilateral lung sounds
b. Trachea midline
c. Absent lung sounds on one side and tracheal deviation
d. Symmetrical chest rise
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is characterized by absent breath sounds
on the affected side and tracheal deviation to the opposite side.
,3. When using the AVPU scale, what does “P” stand for?
a. Passive
b. Pulse
c. Pressure
d. Pain
Rationale: “P” means the patient responds to Painful stimuli.
4. What is the best indicator of effective fluid resuscitation?
a. Decreased respiratory rate
b. Warm skin
c. Urine output of 0.5 mL/kg/hr or higher
d. Strong radial pulse
Rationale: Adequate urine output indicates sufficient perfusion to the
kidneys and overall fluid resuscitation.
5. Which vital sign change indicates possible increased intracranial pressure?
a. Tachycardia
b. Hypotension
c. Bradycardia
d. Tachypnea
Rationale: Cushing’s triad includes bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular
respirations.
6. A patient with a pelvic fracture is at high risk for:
a. Cardiac tamponade
b. Hypovolemic shock
c. Neurogenic shock
, d. Anaphylactic shock
Rationale: Pelvic fractures can cause massive blood loss leading to
hypovolemic shock.
7. What is the preferred site for IO placement in adults?
a. Sternum
b. Radial head
c. Proximal tibia
d. Distal femur
Rationale: The proximal tibia is the most common site for IO access in
adults.
8. When performing a secondary survey, what is the priority?
a. Obtain patient consent
b. Initiate family presence
c. Reassess vital signs
d. Perform a head-to-toe assessment
Rationale: The secondary survey is a comprehensive head-to-toe exam to
identify other injuries.
9. Which patient requires immediate intervention?
a. Flail chest with SpO₂ 94%
b. Open chest wound with bubbling air
c. Closed femur fracture
d. Facial laceration
Rationale: An open chest wound with bubbling air indicates an open
pneumothorax that needs sealing.
, 10.Which statement describes spinal shock?
a. Temporary loss of consciousness
b. Permanent loss of motor function
c. Permanent loss of reflexes
d. Temporary loss of reflex function below the injury
Rationale: Spinal shock is a temporary loss of reflexes and motor function
below the level of injury.
11.Which injury is most likely to cause obstructive shock?
a. Open femur fracture
b. Lacerated spleen
c. Cardiac tamponade
d. Rib fracture
Rationale: Cardiac tamponade impairs cardiac filling, causing obstructive
shock.
12.What is the priority nursing action for a patient with a chemical burn?
a. Cover with dry sterile dressing
b. Remove clothing and irrigate the area
c. Apply ice packs
d. Administer tetanus prophylaxis
Rationale: Immediate irrigation removes the chemical agent and stops the
burning process.
13.Which finding requires immediate notification to the provider?
a. Bruising behind the ears
b. Small scalp laceration
And Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2025 Q&A | Instant
Download
1. A trauma patient presents with a GCS of 6. What should be your priority
action?
a. Establish IV access
b. Administer pain medication
c. Secure the airway
d. Insert a Foley catheter
Rationale: A GCS ≤8 indicates inability to protect the airway. Airway
management is the priority.
2. Which assessment finding suggests a tension pneumothorax?
a. Bilateral lung sounds
b. Trachea midline
c. Absent lung sounds on one side and tracheal deviation
d. Symmetrical chest rise
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is characterized by absent breath sounds
on the affected side and tracheal deviation to the opposite side.
,3. When using the AVPU scale, what does “P” stand for?
a. Passive
b. Pulse
c. Pressure
d. Pain
Rationale: “P” means the patient responds to Painful stimuli.
4. What is the best indicator of effective fluid resuscitation?
a. Decreased respiratory rate
b. Warm skin
c. Urine output of 0.5 mL/kg/hr or higher
d. Strong radial pulse
Rationale: Adequate urine output indicates sufficient perfusion to the
kidneys and overall fluid resuscitation.
5. Which vital sign change indicates possible increased intracranial pressure?
a. Tachycardia
b. Hypotension
c. Bradycardia
d. Tachypnea
Rationale: Cushing’s triad includes bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular
respirations.
6. A patient with a pelvic fracture is at high risk for:
a. Cardiac tamponade
b. Hypovolemic shock
c. Neurogenic shock
, d. Anaphylactic shock
Rationale: Pelvic fractures can cause massive blood loss leading to
hypovolemic shock.
7. What is the preferred site for IO placement in adults?
a. Sternum
b. Radial head
c. Proximal tibia
d. Distal femur
Rationale: The proximal tibia is the most common site for IO access in
adults.
8. When performing a secondary survey, what is the priority?
a. Obtain patient consent
b. Initiate family presence
c. Reassess vital signs
d. Perform a head-to-toe assessment
Rationale: The secondary survey is a comprehensive head-to-toe exam to
identify other injuries.
9. Which patient requires immediate intervention?
a. Flail chest with SpO₂ 94%
b. Open chest wound with bubbling air
c. Closed femur fracture
d. Facial laceration
Rationale: An open chest wound with bubbling air indicates an open
pneumothorax that needs sealing.
, 10.Which statement describes spinal shock?
a. Temporary loss of consciousness
b. Permanent loss of motor function
c. Permanent loss of reflexes
d. Temporary loss of reflex function below the injury
Rationale: Spinal shock is a temporary loss of reflexes and motor function
below the level of injury.
11.Which injury is most likely to cause obstructive shock?
a. Open femur fracture
b. Lacerated spleen
c. Cardiac tamponade
d. Rib fracture
Rationale: Cardiac tamponade impairs cardiac filling, causing obstructive
shock.
12.What is the priority nursing action for a patient with a chemical burn?
a. Cover with dry sterile dressing
b. Remove clothing and irrigate the area
c. Apply ice packs
d. Administer tetanus prophylaxis
Rationale: Immediate irrigation removes the chemical agent and stops the
burning process.
13.Which finding requires immediate notification to the provider?
a. Bruising behind the ears
b. Small scalp laceration
