ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM 2024 / PN
COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 180
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW!!
ATI PN Comprehensive Exit Exam Practice
2024: 180 Questions with Answers and
Rationales
Medical-Surgical Nursing (50 Questions)
1. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
who is prescribed ipratropium. What is the nurse’s priority assessment?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respiratory rate
C. Anticholinergic side effects
D. Oxygen saturation
Answer: C. Anticholinergic side effects
Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator. The nurse should prioritize
assessing for side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, or urinary retention, and
ensure proper inhaler technique.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed enalapril. What should the nurse monitor
for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: A. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia due to potassium
retention. The nurse should monitor serum potassium levels.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which instruction should the
nurse include?
A. Take the medication at bedtime
, B. Monitor daily weight
C. Increase sodium intake
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: B. Monitor daily weight
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic. Monitoring daily weight helps assess fluid
status and the effectiveness of the medication.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which statement indicates the
client understands colostomy care?
A. "I will empty the pouch when it is full."
B. "I will change the pouch every day."
C. "I will avoid high-fiber foods permanently."
D. "I will irrigate the colostomy daily."
Answer: A. "I will empty the pouch when it is full."
Rationale: The pouch should be emptied when it is one-third to one-half full to prevent
leakage and skin irritation.
5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus reports a blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer insulin as prescribed
B. Encourage oral fluid intake
C. Check the client’s HbA1c
D. Provide a high-carbohydrate snack
Answer: A. Administer insulin as prescribed
Rationale: A blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, requiring
insulin administration to lower glucose levels.
6. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which
finding indicates the oxygen therapy is effective?
A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min
B. Heart rate of 100 beats/min
C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
D. Temperature of 101°F
Answer: A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min
Rationale: A normal respiratory rate (12–20 breaths/min) indicates improved
oxygenation and effective therapy.
7. A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction. Which activity should the
nurse restrict?
A. Ambulating to the bathroom
B. Eating a low-sodium diet
C. Lifting heavy objects
D. Watching television
Answer: C. Lifting heavy objects
Rationale: Heavy lifting increases cardiac workload and should be avoided post-
myocardial infarction.
8. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum phenytoin levels
, C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Answer: B. Serum phenytoin levels
Rationale: Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range, requiring monitoring to prevent
toxicity or subtherapeutic levels.
9. A client with a peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. What should the nurse
teach the client?
A. Take the medication with meals
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before breakfast
C. Avoid dairy products
D. Take the medication at bedtime
Answer: B. Take the medication 30 minutes before breakfast
Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is most effective when taken before
meals to reduce acid production.
10. A client with a fractured femur is in traction. Which assessment finding requires
immediate action?
A. Pain at the fracture site
B. Coolness and pallor of the affected leg
C. Slight swelling at the site
D. Mild muscle spasms
Answer: B. Coolness and pallor of the affected leg
Rationale: Coolness and pallor suggest compromised circulation, requiring immediate
intervention to prevent tissue damage.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which action is appropriate if the
chest tube becomes disconnected?
A. Reconnect the tube immediately
B. Place the end of the tube in sterile water
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Tape the tube to the chest
Answer: B. Place the end of the tube in sterile water
Rationale: Placing the tube in sterile water maintains a water seal and prevents air entry
into the pleural space.
12. A client with chronic kidney disease is on a low-potassium diet. Which food should
the nurse recommend?
A. Bananas
B. Apples
C. Potatoes
D. Oranges
Answer: B. Apples
Rationale: Apples are low in potassium, unlike bananas, potatoes, and oranges, which
are high-potassium foods.
13. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What should the
nurse teach the client?
A. Avoid green leafy vegetables
B. Take the medication in the morning
C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
, D. Increase vitamin K intake
Answer: C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk, so clients should monitor for signs such as
bruising or blood in urine.
14. A client with a tracheostomy is at risk for which complication?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Airway obstruction
C. Hypotension
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: B. Airway obstruction
Rationale: Tracheostomy tubes can become blocked by mucus, increasing the risk of
airway obstruction.
15. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action ensures proper
placement?
A. Check the pH of aspirated fluid
B. Measure the tube length daily
C. Auscultate over the epigastrium
D. Observe for respiratory distress
Answer: A. Check the pH of aspirated fluid
Rationale: A pH of 1–5 confirms gastric placement of the nasogastric tube.
16. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which side effect
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hypertension
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Constipation
Answer: B. Hepatotoxicity
Rationale: Methotrexate can cause liver damage, requiring monitoring of liver function
tests.
17. A client with a history of stroke has dysphagia. Which intervention should the nurse
implement?
A. Offer thin liquids
B. Position the client upright during meals
C. Encourage rapid eating
D. Provide large food portions
Answer: B. Position the client upright during meals
Rationale: An upright position reduces the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia.
18. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction
should the nurse include?
A. Take with milk to reduce stomach upset
B. Avoid exposure to sunlight
C. Take with antacids for better absorption
D. Discontinue if diarrhea occurs
Answer: B. Avoid exposure to sunlight
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin increases photosensitivity, requiring sun protection to prevent
burns.
COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 180
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW!!
ATI PN Comprehensive Exit Exam Practice
2024: 180 Questions with Answers and
Rationales
Medical-Surgical Nursing (50 Questions)
1. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
who is prescribed ipratropium. What is the nurse’s priority assessment?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respiratory rate
C. Anticholinergic side effects
D. Oxygen saturation
Answer: C. Anticholinergic side effects
Rationale: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator. The nurse should prioritize
assessing for side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, or urinary retention, and
ensure proper inhaler technique.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed enalapril. What should the nurse monitor
for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: A. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia due to potassium
retention. The nurse should monitor serum potassium levels.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which instruction should the
nurse include?
A. Take the medication at bedtime
, B. Monitor daily weight
C. Increase sodium intake
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: B. Monitor daily weight
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic. Monitoring daily weight helps assess fluid
status and the effectiveness of the medication.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which statement indicates the
client understands colostomy care?
A. "I will empty the pouch when it is full."
B. "I will change the pouch every day."
C. "I will avoid high-fiber foods permanently."
D. "I will irrigate the colostomy daily."
Answer: A. "I will empty the pouch when it is full."
Rationale: The pouch should be emptied when it is one-third to one-half full to prevent
leakage and skin irritation.
5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus reports a blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer insulin as prescribed
B. Encourage oral fluid intake
C. Check the client’s HbA1c
D. Provide a high-carbohydrate snack
Answer: A. Administer insulin as prescribed
Rationale: A blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, requiring
insulin administration to lower glucose levels.
6. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which
finding indicates the oxygen therapy is effective?
A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min
B. Heart rate of 100 beats/min
C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
D. Temperature of 101°F
Answer: A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min
Rationale: A normal respiratory rate (12–20 breaths/min) indicates improved
oxygenation and effective therapy.
7. A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction. Which activity should the
nurse restrict?
A. Ambulating to the bathroom
B. Eating a low-sodium diet
C. Lifting heavy objects
D. Watching television
Answer: C. Lifting heavy objects
Rationale: Heavy lifting increases cardiac workload and should be avoided post-
myocardial infarction.
8. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum phenytoin levels
, C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Answer: B. Serum phenytoin levels
Rationale: Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range, requiring monitoring to prevent
toxicity or subtherapeutic levels.
9. A client with a peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. What should the nurse
teach the client?
A. Take the medication with meals
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before breakfast
C. Avoid dairy products
D. Take the medication at bedtime
Answer: B. Take the medication 30 minutes before breakfast
Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is most effective when taken before
meals to reduce acid production.
10. A client with a fractured femur is in traction. Which assessment finding requires
immediate action?
A. Pain at the fracture site
B. Coolness and pallor of the affected leg
C. Slight swelling at the site
D. Mild muscle spasms
Answer: B. Coolness and pallor of the affected leg
Rationale: Coolness and pallor suggest compromised circulation, requiring immediate
intervention to prevent tissue damage.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which action is appropriate if the
chest tube becomes disconnected?
A. Reconnect the tube immediately
B. Place the end of the tube in sterile water
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Tape the tube to the chest
Answer: B. Place the end of the tube in sterile water
Rationale: Placing the tube in sterile water maintains a water seal and prevents air entry
into the pleural space.
12. A client with chronic kidney disease is on a low-potassium diet. Which food should
the nurse recommend?
A. Bananas
B. Apples
C. Potatoes
D. Oranges
Answer: B. Apples
Rationale: Apples are low in potassium, unlike bananas, potatoes, and oranges, which
are high-potassium foods.
13. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What should the
nurse teach the client?
A. Avoid green leafy vegetables
B. Take the medication in the morning
C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
, D. Increase vitamin K intake
Answer: C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk, so clients should monitor for signs such as
bruising or blood in urine.
14. A client with a tracheostomy is at risk for which complication?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Airway obstruction
C. Hypotension
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: B. Airway obstruction
Rationale: Tracheostomy tubes can become blocked by mucus, increasing the risk of
airway obstruction.
15. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action ensures proper
placement?
A. Check the pH of aspirated fluid
B. Measure the tube length daily
C. Auscultate over the epigastrium
D. Observe for respiratory distress
Answer: A. Check the pH of aspirated fluid
Rationale: A pH of 1–5 confirms gastric placement of the nasogastric tube.
16. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which side effect
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hypertension
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Constipation
Answer: B. Hepatotoxicity
Rationale: Methotrexate can cause liver damage, requiring monitoring of liver function
tests.
17. A client with a history of stroke has dysphagia. Which intervention should the nurse
implement?
A. Offer thin liquids
B. Position the client upright during meals
C. Encourage rapid eating
D. Provide large food portions
Answer: B. Position the client upright during meals
Rationale: An upright position reduces the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia.
18. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction
should the nurse include?
A. Take with milk to reduce stomach upset
B. Avoid exposure to sunlight
C. Take with antacids for better absorption
D. Discontinue if diarrhea occurs
Answer: B. Avoid exposure to sunlight
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin increases photosensitivity, requiring sun protection to prevent
burns.
