NSG 6005 Week 5 Quiz 2025 Actual – South University Quiz Questions & Verified Answer Key | Graded A

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NSG 6005 Week 5 Quiz 2025 Actual –
South University Quiz Questions &
Verified Answer Key | Graded A

1. Which medication is first-line for acute bronchospasm in asthma?
A. Montelukast
B. Albuterol
C. Fluticasone
D. Ipratropium
Correct Answer: B. Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-2 agonist, rapidly relieves bronchospasm in
acute asthma. Montelukast (A) and fluticasone (C) are for maintenance, and ipratropium
(D) is adjunctive.
2. A patient on warfarin reports excessive bleeding. Which lab test should be checked?
A. Platelet count
B. INR
C. Serum creatinine
D. Blood glucose
Correct Answer: B. INR
Rationale: INR monitors warfarin's anticoagulant effect; elevated levels indicate
bleeding risk. Platelet count (A), creatinine (C), and glucose (D) are not directly related.
3. What is the primary mechanism of action of metformin?
A. Stimulates insulin release
B. Decreases hepatic glucose production
C. Increases glucagon secretion
D. Enhances glucose absorption
Correct Answer: B. Decreases hepatic glucose production
Rationale: Metformin reduces gluconeogenesis in the liver, lowering blood glucose.
Insulin stimulation (A) is by sulfonylureas, glucagon (C) is incorrect, and absorption (D)
is not affected.
4. A patient reports nausea and yellow vision while taking digoxin. What should the
nurse do?
A. Administer the next dose.
B. Check for digoxin toxicity.
C. Increase fluid intake.
D. Reduce the dose.
Correct Answer: B. Check for digoxin toxicity.
Rationale: Nausea and yellow vision are signs of digoxin toxicity, requiring serum level
and pulse checks. Continuing the dose (A), increasing fluids (C), or reducing dose (D)
without assessment is unsafe.

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5. Which medication is contraindicated in patients with a sulfa allergy?
A. Lisinopril
B. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
C. Amlodipine
D. Metoprolol
Correct Answer: B. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
Rationale: Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim contains sulfa, contraindicated in sulfa
allergies. Lisinopril (A), amlodipine (C), and metoprolol (D) are safe.
6. When should levothyroxine be taken for optimal absorption?
A. With meals
B. At bedtime
C. On an empty stomach
D. With calcium supplements
Correct Answer: C. On an empty stomach
Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed 30–60 minutes before breakfast. Food (A),
bedtime (B), or calcium (D) reduces absorption.
7. Which antihypertensive is most likely to cause a persistent dry cough?
A. Metoprolol
B. Lisinopril
C. Amlodipine
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: B. Lisinopril
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, causes cough due to bradykinin accumulation.
Metoprolol (A), amlodipine (C), and hydrochlorothiazide (D) do not.
8. A patient on furosemide should be monitored for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, causing
hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (A), hypernatremia (C), and hypocalcemia (D) are less
likely.
9. What is the primary indication for clopidogrel?
A. Hypertension
B. Thrombus prevention
C. Heart failure
D. Arrhythmias
Correct Answer: B. Thrombus prevention
Rationale: Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet, prevents thrombus formation in conditions like
acute coronary syndrome. It is not used for hypertension (A), heart failure (C), or
arrhythmias (D).
10. A patient with renal impairment is prescribed amoxicillin. What is required?
A. No dosage adjustment
B. Dosage reduction
C. Increased dosage

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D. Alternative antibiotic
Correct Answer: B. Dosage reduction
Rationale: Amoxicillin is renally excreted, requiring dosage reduction in renal
impairment to avoid toxicity. No adjustment (A), increased dose (C), or alternative (D) is
incorrect without context.
11. Which medication reverses opioid overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: B. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone, an opioid antagonist, reverses opioid overdose. Flumazenil (A)
reverses benzodiazepines, atropine (C) treats bradycardia, and protamine (D) reverses
heparin.
12. What is the mechanism of action of glipizide in type 2 diabetes?
A. Inhibits glucose absorption
B. Stimulates insulin release
C. Decreases insulin resistance
D. Increases glucagon secretion
Correct Answer: B. Stimulates insulin release
Rationale: Glipizide, a sulfonylurea, stimulates pancreatic beta cells to release insulin.
Glucose absorption (A), insulin resistance (C), and glucagon (D) are not affected.
13. A patient on atorvastatin reports muscle pain. What should the nurse do?
A. Continue the medication.
B. Report to the provider.
C. Increase the dose.
D. Administer with food.
Correct Answer: B. Report to the provider.
Rationale: Muscle pain may indicate myopathy or rhabdomyolysis, serious atorvastatin
side effects, requiring provider evaluation. Continuing (A), increasing dose (C), or food
(D) is inappropriate.
14. Which medication requires monitoring for ototoxicity?
A. Gentamicin
B. Penicillin
C. Azithromycin
D. Ceftriaxone
Correct Answer: A. Gentamicin
Rationale: Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, can cause ototoxicity, requiring hearing
monitoring. Penicillin (B), azithromycin (C), and ceftriaxone (D) have lower ototoxicity
risks.
15. A patient on prednisone should be instructed to:
A. Take with grapefruit juice.
B. Taper the dose as directed.
C. Stop if side effects occur.
D. Take on an empty stomach.
Correct Answer: B. Taper the dose as directed.