Actual Questions and Answers
100% Guarantee Pass
This Exam contains:
100% Guarantee Pass.
Multiple-Choice (A–D), For Each Question.
Each Question Includes The Correct Answer
Rationale That Aligns with Atls Post Test 2025 Principles.
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1. Which of the following is the recommended method for treating frostbite?
A. Vasodilators
B. Warm water immersion at approximately 40°C
C. Padding and elevation only
D. Application of heat from a hairdryer
Answer: B. Warm water immersion at approximately 40°C
Rationale:
• Rapid rewarming in a circulating water bath at 37–40°C (approx.) is the standard
of care for frostbite management.
• Use of hairdryers or dry heat is contraindicated due to the risk of uneven heating
and tissue damage.
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2. Which of the following physical findings suggests a cause of hypotension other
than spinal cord injury?
A. Priapism
B. Bradycardia
C. Diaphragmatic breathing
D. Presence of deep tendon reflexes
Answer: D. Presence of deep tendon reflexes
Rationale:
• Spinal shock typically presents with flaccidity and loss of reflexes below the level
of injury.
• Preserved or brisk deep tendon reflexes suggest that the hypotension is not solely
due to spinal cord injury.
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3. The primary indication for transferring a patient to a higher-level trauma center
is:
A. Unavailability of a surgeon or operating staff
B. Multiple system injuries (including severe head injury)
C. Resource limitations as determined by the transferring doctor
D. Widened mediastinum on chest X-ray after blunt trauma
Answer: C. Resource limitations as determined by the transferring doctor
Rationale:
• Transfer is indicated when the current facility lacks the necessary resources—
clinical expertise, specialist availability, or equipment—to manage the patient
effectively.
• The decision rests with the physician responsible for the patient’s care, based on
local capabilities.
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4. A young man has a gunshot wound to the mid-abdomen. He arrives hypotensive
(systolic blood pressure 58 mmHg) and does not improve despite rapid infusion of
warmed crystalloid fluids. The next most appropriate step is to:
A. Immediate laparotomy
B. Abdominal CT scan
C. Abdominal ultrasonography (FAST)
D. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)
Answer: A. Immediate laparotomy
Rationale:
, • In the setting of penetrating abdominal trauma with persistent hypotension, the
priority is to control hemorrhage surgically.
• Diagnostic imaging (CT, FAST, DPL) is not indicated when the patient is profoundly
unstable and in obvious need of operative intervention.
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5. A previously healthy, 70 kg man suffers an estimated acute blood loss of two
liters. Which one of the following statements most accurately applies to this
patient?
A. His pulse pressure will be widened
B. His urinary output will be at the lower limits of normal
C. He will have tachycardia, but no change in systolic blood pressure
D. His systolic blood pressure will be maintained with an elevated diastolic pressure
Answer: D. His systolic blood pressure will be maintained with an elevated diastolic
pressure
Rationale:
• Losing about 2 L of blood (~30% of total volume) typically results in a marked
sympathetic response, causing peripheral vasoconstriction.
• This narrows the pulse pressure by raising diastolic pressure while maintaining
systolic for as long as compensatory mechanisms can function.
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6. The physiologic hypervolemia of pregnancy has clinical significance in the
management of the severely injured gravid woman by:
A. Reducing the need for blood transfusion
B. Increasing the risk of pulmonary edema
C. Complicating the management of closed head injury
D. Increasing the volume of blood loss required to produce shock (maternal
hypotension)
Answer: D. Increasing the volume of blood loss required to produce shock
(maternal hypotension)
Rationale: