3280 Nursing Care of Women &
Families During Reproductive
Transitions
Final Exam Review
(Questions & Solutions)
2025
1
, 1. Multiple Choice
Question:
A 28‑year‑old primigravida at 32 weeks of gestation presents with new-
onset hypertension and proteinuria. Which condition is most likely, and
what is the priority intervention?
- A. Gestational hypertension; reassurance and routine monitoring
- B. Preeclampsia; prompt evaluation for seizure prophylaxis and
maternal-fetal monitoring
- C. Chronic hypertension; adjustment of her existing antihypertensive
regimen
- D. HELLP syndrome; immediate delivery regardless of gestational age
Correct ANS:
B. Preeclampsia; prompt evaluation for seizure prophylaxis and maternal-
fetal monitoring
Rationale:
Preeclampsia is characterized by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria
after 20 weeks’ gestation. Early intervention with magnesium sulfate for
seizure prophylaxis and continuous maternal-fetal monitoring is critical
to prevent progression to eclampsia.
---
2. Fill-in-the-Blank
Question:
The theory that views reproductive transitions as a series of
developmental milestones influenced by biological, psychological, and
social factors is known as __________ theory.
Correct ANS:
lifespan
2
, Rationale:
Lifespan theory recognizes that reproductive events (menstruation,
pregnancy, postpartum, menopause) are interconnected with ongoing
growth and adaptation across a woman’s life. This framework supports
individualized, holistic care.
---
3. True/False
Question:
True or False: Postpartum depression typically emerges within the first
four weeks after delivery and is solely caused by hormonal fluctuations.
Correct ANS:
False
Rationale:
While hormonal changes contribute to postpartum depression, its origin
is multifactorial—psychosocial stressors, sleep deprivation, and previous
mental health history also play significant roles.
---
4. Multiple Response
Question:
Which of the following are key components of a comprehensive
postpartum assessment? (Select all that apply)
- A. Evaluation of uterine involution
- B. Assessment of maternal mood and emotional status
- C. Evaluation of breastfeeding effectiveness
- D. Measurement of newborn Apgar score
- E. Inspection of perineal healing
Correct ANSs:
3
, A, B, C, E
Rationale:
A comprehensive postpartum assessment should review uterine
involution, emotional well-being, breastfeeding issues, and perineal
healing. Although the Apgar score is important, it pertains to the
newborn rather than the mother.
---
5. Multiple Choice
Question:
A nurse is providing education on contraception for a 35‑year‑old woman
with a history of deep venous thrombosis. Which method is most
appropriate given her elevated thrombotic risk?
- A. Combined estrogen‑progestin oral contraceptives
- B. Progestin‑only pills
- C. Intrauterine device (IUD)
- D. Barrier methods exclusively
Correct ANS:
C. Intrauterine device (IUD)
Rationale:
Women with a history of DVT are at increased risk for thromboembolic
events, making estrogen-containing methods (A) potentially hazardous.
An IUD is both safe and highly effective in this risk population.
---
6. Fill-in-the-Blank
Question:
Screening for postpartum depression in new mothers is typically
performed using the __________, a tool that assesses depressive
symptoms within the prior two weeks.
4
Families During Reproductive
Transitions
Final Exam Review
(Questions & Solutions)
2025
1
, 1. Multiple Choice
Question:
A 28‑year‑old primigravida at 32 weeks of gestation presents with new-
onset hypertension and proteinuria. Which condition is most likely, and
what is the priority intervention?
- A. Gestational hypertension; reassurance and routine monitoring
- B. Preeclampsia; prompt evaluation for seizure prophylaxis and
maternal-fetal monitoring
- C. Chronic hypertension; adjustment of her existing antihypertensive
regimen
- D. HELLP syndrome; immediate delivery regardless of gestational age
Correct ANS:
B. Preeclampsia; prompt evaluation for seizure prophylaxis and maternal-
fetal monitoring
Rationale:
Preeclampsia is characterized by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria
after 20 weeks’ gestation. Early intervention with magnesium sulfate for
seizure prophylaxis and continuous maternal-fetal monitoring is critical
to prevent progression to eclampsia.
---
2. Fill-in-the-Blank
Question:
The theory that views reproductive transitions as a series of
developmental milestones influenced by biological, psychological, and
social factors is known as __________ theory.
Correct ANS:
lifespan
2
, Rationale:
Lifespan theory recognizes that reproductive events (menstruation,
pregnancy, postpartum, menopause) are interconnected with ongoing
growth and adaptation across a woman’s life. This framework supports
individualized, holistic care.
---
3. True/False
Question:
True or False: Postpartum depression typically emerges within the first
four weeks after delivery and is solely caused by hormonal fluctuations.
Correct ANS:
False
Rationale:
While hormonal changes contribute to postpartum depression, its origin
is multifactorial—psychosocial stressors, sleep deprivation, and previous
mental health history also play significant roles.
---
4. Multiple Response
Question:
Which of the following are key components of a comprehensive
postpartum assessment? (Select all that apply)
- A. Evaluation of uterine involution
- B. Assessment of maternal mood and emotional status
- C. Evaluation of breastfeeding effectiveness
- D. Measurement of newborn Apgar score
- E. Inspection of perineal healing
Correct ANSs:
3
, A, B, C, E
Rationale:
A comprehensive postpartum assessment should review uterine
involution, emotional well-being, breastfeeding issues, and perineal
healing. Although the Apgar score is important, it pertains to the
newborn rather than the mother.
---
5. Multiple Choice
Question:
A nurse is providing education on contraception for a 35‑year‑old woman
with a history of deep venous thrombosis. Which method is most
appropriate given her elevated thrombotic risk?
- A. Combined estrogen‑progestin oral contraceptives
- B. Progestin‑only pills
- C. Intrauterine device (IUD)
- D. Barrier methods exclusively
Correct ANS:
C. Intrauterine device (IUD)
Rationale:
Women with a history of DVT are at increased risk for thromboembolic
events, making estrogen-containing methods (A) potentially hazardous.
An IUD is both safe and highly effective in this risk population.
---
6. Fill-in-the-Blank
Question:
Screening for postpartum depression in new mothers is typically
performed using the __________, a tool that assesses depressive
symptoms within the prior two weeks.
4
