ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2025/2026 –
Complete Verified Questions and Detailed Correct Answers
Instructions
This exam consists of 80 multiple-choice questions designed to evaluate your knowledge
and clinical judgment in maternal-newborn nursing, aligned with ATI RN Maternal New-
born Proctored Exam standards for the 2025/2026 academic year. Each question includes
four answer options, one verified correct answer, and a detailed rationale based on current
maternal-newborn nursing principles. The exam is untimed and typically takes 1.5 to 2.5
hours to complete. A passing score is 75% (60 correct answers out of 80).
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client at 38 weeks gestation during a nonstress test
(NST). Which finding indicates a reactive NST?
a) a) Two fetal heart rate accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds within
20 minutes
b) Fetal heart rate baseline of 110 bpm with no accelerations
c) One acceleration of 10 bpm lasting 10 seconds
d) Variable decelerations with each contraction
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: A reactive NST requires at least two fetal heart rate (FHR)
accelerations of 15 bpm above baseline, lasting 15 seconds, within 20 minutes,
indicating fetal well-being. ATI guidelines emphasize NST interpretation to
assess fetal oxygenation.
Question 2: A postpartum client reports heavy vaginal bleeding 4 days after delivery.
Which finding suggests uterine atony?
a) a) Boggy uterus
b) Firm uterus
c) Foul-smelling lochia
d) Elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: A boggy uterus indicates poor uterine tone, leading to heavy
bleeding due to uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
ATI stresses fundal assessment to detect atony early.
Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client about RhoGAM administration. Which client
should receive this medication?
1
, a) a) Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive newborn
b) Rh-positive mother with an Rh-negative newborn
c) Rh-negative mother with an Rh-negative newborn
d) Rh-positive mother with an Rh-positive newborn
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: RhoGAM prevents Rh sensitization in an Rh-negative mother
exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood, such as during delivery of an Rh-positive
newborn. ATI emphasizes its administration within 72 hours postpartum.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a newborn with jaundice. Which intervention is most
appropriate?
a) a) Initiate phototherapy
b) Increase formula intake
c) Restrict breastfeeding
d) Administer vitamin K
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: Phototherapy reduces bilirubin levels in neonatal jaundice by
converting bilirubin to an excretable form. ATI guidelines prioritize pho-
totherapy for jaundice management to prevent kernicterus.
Question 5: A client in labor at 39 weeks gestation has a fetal heart rate of 90 bpm.
Which action should the nurse take first?
a) a) Place the client in a left lateral position
b) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
c) Notify the provider
d) Increase IV fluid rate
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 90 bpm indicates bradycardia, suggesting
fetal distress. The left lateral position improves uteroplacental perfusion,
per ATI’s priority interventions for non-reassuring FHR patterns.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client at 28 weeks gestation with suspected preterm
labor. Which finding is most concerning?
a) a) Cervical dilation of 3 cm
b) Irregular contractions
c) Intact membranes
d) Mild cramping
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: Cervical dilation of 3 cm at 28 weeks indicates preterm labor pro-
gression, requiring immediate intervention. ATI stresses cervical assessment
to confirm preterm labor risk.
2
, Question 7: A postpartum client is prescribed methylergonovine for uterine atony. Which
assessment is most important before administration?
a) a) Blood pressure
b) Lochia amount
c) Fundal height
d) Pulse rate
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: Methylergonovine, a uterotonic, can cause hypertension. Check-
ing blood pressure ensures safe administration, per ATI’s medication safety
guidelines.
Question 8: A nurse is teaching a client about breastfeeding positions. Which position
is best for a client post-cesarean delivery?
a) a) Football hold
b) Cradle hold
c) Cross-cradle hold
d) Side-lying position
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: The football hold minimizes pressure on the abdominal incision
post-cesarean, promoting comfort during breastfeeding. ATI emphasizes po-
sition selection to support maternal recovery.
Question 9: A newborn is receiving vitamin K intramuscularly. What is the primary
purpose of this medication?
a) a) Prevent hemorrhagic disease
b) Promote jaundice resolution
c) Enhance immune function
d) Support respiratory function
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: Vitamin K prevents hemorrhagic disease of the newborn by pro-
moting clotting factor synthesis. ATI guidelines mandate its administration
shortly after birth.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client with gestational diabetes at 36 weeks gestation.
Which finding requires immediate action?
a) a) Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
b) Weight gain of 1 lb/week
c) Fetal movement of 10 kicks in 2 hours
d) Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg
3
Complete Verified Questions and Detailed Correct Answers
Instructions
This exam consists of 80 multiple-choice questions designed to evaluate your knowledge
and clinical judgment in maternal-newborn nursing, aligned with ATI RN Maternal New-
born Proctored Exam standards for the 2025/2026 academic year. Each question includes
four answer options, one verified correct answer, and a detailed rationale based on current
maternal-newborn nursing principles. The exam is untimed and typically takes 1.5 to 2.5
hours to complete. A passing score is 75% (60 correct answers out of 80).
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client at 38 weeks gestation during a nonstress test
(NST). Which finding indicates a reactive NST?
a) a) Two fetal heart rate accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds within
20 minutes
b) Fetal heart rate baseline of 110 bpm with no accelerations
c) One acceleration of 10 bpm lasting 10 seconds
d) Variable decelerations with each contraction
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: A reactive NST requires at least two fetal heart rate (FHR)
accelerations of 15 bpm above baseline, lasting 15 seconds, within 20 minutes,
indicating fetal well-being. ATI guidelines emphasize NST interpretation to
assess fetal oxygenation.
Question 2: A postpartum client reports heavy vaginal bleeding 4 days after delivery.
Which finding suggests uterine atony?
a) a) Boggy uterus
b) Firm uterus
c) Foul-smelling lochia
d) Elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: A boggy uterus indicates poor uterine tone, leading to heavy
bleeding due to uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
ATI stresses fundal assessment to detect atony early.
Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client about RhoGAM administration. Which client
should receive this medication?
1
, a) a) Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive newborn
b) Rh-positive mother with an Rh-negative newborn
c) Rh-negative mother with an Rh-negative newborn
d) Rh-positive mother with an Rh-positive newborn
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: RhoGAM prevents Rh sensitization in an Rh-negative mother
exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood, such as during delivery of an Rh-positive
newborn. ATI emphasizes its administration within 72 hours postpartum.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a newborn with jaundice. Which intervention is most
appropriate?
a) a) Initiate phototherapy
b) Increase formula intake
c) Restrict breastfeeding
d) Administer vitamin K
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: Phototherapy reduces bilirubin levels in neonatal jaundice by
converting bilirubin to an excretable form. ATI guidelines prioritize pho-
totherapy for jaundice management to prevent kernicterus.
Question 5: A client in labor at 39 weeks gestation has a fetal heart rate of 90 bpm.
Which action should the nurse take first?
a) a) Place the client in a left lateral position
b) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
c) Notify the provider
d) Increase IV fluid rate
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 90 bpm indicates bradycardia, suggesting
fetal distress. The left lateral position improves uteroplacental perfusion,
per ATI’s priority interventions for non-reassuring FHR patterns.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client at 28 weeks gestation with suspected preterm
labor. Which finding is most concerning?
a) a) Cervical dilation of 3 cm
b) Irregular contractions
c) Intact membranes
d) Mild cramping
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: Cervical dilation of 3 cm at 28 weeks indicates preterm labor pro-
gression, requiring immediate intervention. ATI stresses cervical assessment
to confirm preterm labor risk.
2
, Question 7: A postpartum client is prescribed methylergonovine for uterine atony. Which
assessment is most important before administration?
a) a) Blood pressure
b) Lochia amount
c) Fundal height
d) Pulse rate
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: Methylergonovine, a uterotonic, can cause hypertension. Check-
ing blood pressure ensures safe administration, per ATI’s medication safety
guidelines.
Question 8: A nurse is teaching a client about breastfeeding positions. Which position
is best for a client post-cesarean delivery?
a) a) Football hold
b) Cradle hold
c) Cross-cradle hold
d) Side-lying position
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: The football hold minimizes pressure on the abdominal incision
post-cesarean, promoting comfort during breastfeeding. ATI emphasizes po-
sition selection to support maternal recovery.
Question 9: A newborn is receiving vitamin K intramuscularly. What is the primary
purpose of this medication?
a) a) Prevent hemorrhagic disease
b) Promote jaundice resolution
c) Enhance immune function
d) Support respiratory function
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: Vitamin K prevents hemorrhagic disease of the newborn by pro-
moting clotting factor synthesis. ATI guidelines mandate its administration
shortly after birth.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client with gestational diabetes at 36 weeks gestation.
Which finding requires immediate action?
a) a) Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
b) Weight gain of 1 lb/week
c) Fetal movement of 10 kicks in 2 hours
d) Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg
3
