6/10/25, 10:18 PM NR575 AGACNP Certification Review Renal and Genitourinary
NR 575 AGACNP Certification Review Renal and
Genitourinary Actual Questions And Answers With
Complete Solutions | New Update 2025
Correct
100%
Incorrect
,6/10/25, 10:18 PM NR575 AGACNP Certification Review Renal and Genitourinary
,6/10/25, 10:18 PM NR575 AGACNP Certification Review Renal and Genitourinary
25. A 56-year-old white woman is admitted to the intensive care unit for an angiography
procedure. The patient has had severe chest pain, sweating, and shortness of breath for the
past 3 hours. Her vital signs are blood temperature 150/90 mmHg, respiratory rate 30
breaths/min, heart rate 88 beats/min, and serum creatinine 4.3 mg/dL (baseline is 1.0
mg/dL). According the Acute Kidney Injury Network criteria, which stage is represented in this
patient?
1. Stage 1.
2. Stage 2.
3. Stage 3.
4. Stage 7. A 54-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease stage 4 (estimated4. glomerular
filtration rate is 20 mL/min/1.73 m2) has received a diagnosis of gram-negative bacteremia.
The nurse practitioner prescribes drug X for him, but there are no published reports on
how to adjust the dose of drug X in a patient with impaired kidney function. The package of
drug X shows that it has significant renal elimination with 30% excreted unchanged in the
urine. The usual dose of drug X is 400 mg/day intravenously and is provided as 100 mg/mL
in a 6-mL vial. Which is the best dosage of drug X for this patient?
1. 5.5 mg/mL.
2. 4.1 mg/mL.
3. 3.6 mg/mL.
4. 3 mg/mL.
Don't know?
2 of 52
Term
46. A 70-year-old white man receiving hemodialysis treatment who has had
end-stage kidney disease for 7 years comes to the clinic. His hemodialysis
access is an arteriovenous fistula. The patient's medical history includes
hypertension, mild congestive heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and epilepsy. He
takes aspirin 81 mg daily, metoprolol succinate 100 mg/day, ramipril 20 mg
daily, epoetin alfa 10,000 units three times every week, calcium acetate 2 g
three times daily after meals, and renal multivitamins daily. Laboratory values
, 6/10/25, 10:18 PM NR575 AGACNP Certification Review Renal and Genitourinary
show hemoglobin is 10.5 g/dL, parathyroid hormone is 650 pg/mL, sodium is
143 mEq/L, potassium is 4.9 mEq/L, calcium is 9 mg/dL, serum creatinine is 7.5
mg/dL, albumin is 2.5 g/dL, phosphorus is 7.9 mg/dL, serum ferritin is 600
ng/mL, and transferrin saturation is 33%. His red blood cells and white blood
cells are normal. The patient is afebrile. What is the most likely cause of this
patie
Give this one a try later!
1. Intravenous iron.
Rationale: The hemoglobin concentration of the patient is not at goal; it should be greater
than 10 g/dL. Iron studies show that the patient is iron deficient because the ferritin
concentration is less than 500 ng/mL and transferrin saturation is less than 30%. Intravenous
iron (answer 1) is the most appropriate approach for patients with chronic kidney disease
(CKD) who are receiving hemodialysis. Increasing the epoetin dosage (answer 2) would not
increase red cell production with the absence of adequate iron. Oral iron (answer 3) is
recommended for patients with nondialysis CKD. The patient is not at goal, which makes
answer 4 incorrect.
3. Add chlorthalidone and monitor serum potassium, serum creatinine, and blood pressure in 2
weeks.
Rationale: This patient has diabetic nephropathy based on his laboratory values, which
include elevation in blood pressure, serum creatinine, and albumin/creatinine ratio. The
blood pressure goal for patients with diabetic nephropathy should be less than 130/80
mmHg. The increase is serum creatinine is less than 30%; therefore enalapril should be
continued without change. That makes answers 1 and 2 incorrect. Adding chlorthalidone
(answer 3) is the best choice to achieve the blood pressure goal and monitoring of serum
creatinine and potassium are appropriate for this patient (answer 3). Increasing the beta-
blockers would not be beneficial for limiting his kidney function prognosis (answer 4).
3. Category A3.
Rationale: The Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes guidelines provide guidance on
categorization of albuminuria according to the albumin/creatinine ratio (ACR). Category A1 is
an ACR less than 30 mg/g (answer 1 is incorrect). Category A2 is a moderate increase of
albuminuria with an ACR of 30 to 300 mg/g (answer 2 is incorrect). Category A3 is a severe
NR 575 AGACNP Certification Review Renal and
Genitourinary Actual Questions And Answers With
Complete Solutions | New Update 2025
Correct
100%
Incorrect
,6/10/25, 10:18 PM NR575 AGACNP Certification Review Renal and Genitourinary
,6/10/25, 10:18 PM NR575 AGACNP Certification Review Renal and Genitourinary
25. A 56-year-old white woman is admitted to the intensive care unit for an angiography
procedure. The patient has had severe chest pain, sweating, and shortness of breath for the
past 3 hours. Her vital signs are blood temperature 150/90 mmHg, respiratory rate 30
breaths/min, heart rate 88 beats/min, and serum creatinine 4.3 mg/dL (baseline is 1.0
mg/dL). According the Acute Kidney Injury Network criteria, which stage is represented in this
patient?
1. Stage 1.
2. Stage 2.
3. Stage 3.
4. Stage 7. A 54-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease stage 4 (estimated4. glomerular
filtration rate is 20 mL/min/1.73 m2) has received a diagnosis of gram-negative bacteremia.
The nurse practitioner prescribes drug X for him, but there are no published reports on
how to adjust the dose of drug X in a patient with impaired kidney function. The package of
drug X shows that it has significant renal elimination with 30% excreted unchanged in the
urine. The usual dose of drug X is 400 mg/day intravenously and is provided as 100 mg/mL
in a 6-mL vial. Which is the best dosage of drug X for this patient?
1. 5.5 mg/mL.
2. 4.1 mg/mL.
3. 3.6 mg/mL.
4. 3 mg/mL.
Don't know?
2 of 52
Term
46. A 70-year-old white man receiving hemodialysis treatment who has had
end-stage kidney disease for 7 years comes to the clinic. His hemodialysis
access is an arteriovenous fistula. The patient's medical history includes
hypertension, mild congestive heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and epilepsy. He
takes aspirin 81 mg daily, metoprolol succinate 100 mg/day, ramipril 20 mg
daily, epoetin alfa 10,000 units three times every week, calcium acetate 2 g
three times daily after meals, and renal multivitamins daily. Laboratory values
, 6/10/25, 10:18 PM NR575 AGACNP Certification Review Renal and Genitourinary
show hemoglobin is 10.5 g/dL, parathyroid hormone is 650 pg/mL, sodium is
143 mEq/L, potassium is 4.9 mEq/L, calcium is 9 mg/dL, serum creatinine is 7.5
mg/dL, albumin is 2.5 g/dL, phosphorus is 7.9 mg/dL, serum ferritin is 600
ng/mL, and transferrin saturation is 33%. His red blood cells and white blood
cells are normal. The patient is afebrile. What is the most likely cause of this
patie
Give this one a try later!
1. Intravenous iron.
Rationale: The hemoglobin concentration of the patient is not at goal; it should be greater
than 10 g/dL. Iron studies show that the patient is iron deficient because the ferritin
concentration is less than 500 ng/mL and transferrin saturation is less than 30%. Intravenous
iron (answer 1) is the most appropriate approach for patients with chronic kidney disease
(CKD) who are receiving hemodialysis. Increasing the epoetin dosage (answer 2) would not
increase red cell production with the absence of adequate iron. Oral iron (answer 3) is
recommended for patients with nondialysis CKD. The patient is not at goal, which makes
answer 4 incorrect.
3. Add chlorthalidone and monitor serum potassium, serum creatinine, and blood pressure in 2
weeks.
Rationale: This patient has diabetic nephropathy based on his laboratory values, which
include elevation in blood pressure, serum creatinine, and albumin/creatinine ratio. The
blood pressure goal for patients with diabetic nephropathy should be less than 130/80
mmHg. The increase is serum creatinine is less than 30%; therefore enalapril should be
continued without change. That makes answers 1 and 2 incorrect. Adding chlorthalidone
(answer 3) is the best choice to achieve the blood pressure goal and monitoring of serum
creatinine and potassium are appropriate for this patient (answer 3). Increasing the beta-
blockers would not be beneficial for limiting his kidney function prognosis (answer 4).
3. Category A3.
Rationale: The Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes guidelines provide guidance on
categorization of albuminuria according to the albumin/creatinine ratio (ACR). Category A1 is
an ACR less than 30 mg/g (answer 1 is incorrect). Category A2 is a moderate increase of
albuminuria with an ACR of 30 to 300 mg/g (answer 2 is incorrect). Category A3 is a severe
