ATI Medical-Surgical Proctored Test – Fully Solved
Questions with Trusted Answers, Most Accurate A+
Review Edition for 2025
80 Multiple-Choice Questions with Complete Solutions
Instructions
This exam contains 80 multiple-choice questions focused on respiratory, cardiac,
neurological, renal, and musculoskeletal conditions. Each question has four an-
swer options (A–D). Select the best answer. Rationales are provided after each
question. A final answer key is included at the end.
Questions
1. A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. Which assessment finding
indicates a need for immediate intervention?
A. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
B. Oxygen saturation of 88%
C. Clear lung sounds
D. Temperature of 99°F
Answer: B
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, requiring
immediate intervention such as supplemental oxygen.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What should the nurse
monitor for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, lead-
ing to a risk of hypokalemia.
3. A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected stroke. Which symptom is
most indicative of a stroke?
A. Sudden unilateral weakness
B. Generalized fatigue
C. Mild headache
D. Nausea
Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden unilateral weakness is a hallmark symptom of stroke,
indicating neurological deficit.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) reports itching. What is the
likely cause?
1
, A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyperphosphatemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyponatremia
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperphosphatemia in CKD can cause pruritus due to phos-
phate accumulation in the skin.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a fractured femur. Which intervention
prevents complications?
A. Encourage weight-bearing immediately
B. Apply traction as prescribed
C. Restrict fluid intake
D. Keep the leg in a dependent position
Answer: B
Rationale: Traction stabilizes the fracture, reduces pain, and prevents fur-
ther tissue damage.
6. A client with COPD is experiencing dyspnea. Which position should the
nurse recommend?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. High Fowler’s
D. Trendelenburg
Answer: C
Rationale: High Fowler’s position facilitates lung expansion and eases breath-
ing in clients with COPD.
7. A nurse is monitoring a client post-myocardial infarction. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
B. New-onset chest pain
C. Heart rate of 80 bpm
D. Oxygen saturation of 95%
Answer: B
Rationale: New-onset chest pain may indicate ongoing ischemia or rein-
farction, requiring immediate intervention.
8. A client with a seizure disorder is admitted after a tonic-clonic seizure.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer acetaminophen
B. Ensure airway patency
C. Restrain the client
D. Provide a high-protein diet
Answer: B
Rationale: Airway patency is critical post-seizure to prevent hypoxia and
ensure client safety.
9. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L.
2
Questions with Trusted Answers, Most Accurate A+
Review Edition for 2025
80 Multiple-Choice Questions with Complete Solutions
Instructions
This exam contains 80 multiple-choice questions focused on respiratory, cardiac,
neurological, renal, and musculoskeletal conditions. Each question has four an-
swer options (A–D). Select the best answer. Rationales are provided after each
question. A final answer key is included at the end.
Questions
1. A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia. Which assessment finding
indicates a need for immediate intervention?
A. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
B. Oxygen saturation of 88%
C. Clear lung sounds
D. Temperature of 99°F
Answer: B
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, requiring
immediate intervention such as supplemental oxygen.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What should the nurse
monitor for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, lead-
ing to a risk of hypokalemia.
3. A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected stroke. Which symptom is
most indicative of a stroke?
A. Sudden unilateral weakness
B. Generalized fatigue
C. Mild headache
D. Nausea
Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden unilateral weakness is a hallmark symptom of stroke,
indicating neurological deficit.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) reports itching. What is the
likely cause?
1
, A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyperphosphatemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyponatremia
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperphosphatemia in CKD can cause pruritus due to phos-
phate accumulation in the skin.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a fractured femur. Which intervention
prevents complications?
A. Encourage weight-bearing immediately
B. Apply traction as prescribed
C. Restrict fluid intake
D. Keep the leg in a dependent position
Answer: B
Rationale: Traction stabilizes the fracture, reduces pain, and prevents fur-
ther tissue damage.
6. A client with COPD is experiencing dyspnea. Which position should the
nurse recommend?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. High Fowler’s
D. Trendelenburg
Answer: C
Rationale: High Fowler’s position facilitates lung expansion and eases breath-
ing in clients with COPD.
7. A nurse is monitoring a client post-myocardial infarction. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
B. New-onset chest pain
C. Heart rate of 80 bpm
D. Oxygen saturation of 95%
Answer: B
Rationale: New-onset chest pain may indicate ongoing ischemia or rein-
farction, requiring immediate intervention.
8. A client with a seizure disorder is admitted after a tonic-clonic seizure.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer acetaminophen
B. Ensure airway patency
C. Restrain the client
D. Provide a high-protein diet
Answer: B
Rationale: Airway patency is critical post-seizure to prevent hypoxia and
ensure client safety.
9. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L.
2
