D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced
Practice Nurse EXAM LATEST VERSION 2025 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a
missing gene? - CORRECT ANSWER-Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of
the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard
from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - CORRECT ANSWER-
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs
of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a
female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - CORRECT
,ANSWER-Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of
disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? -
CORRECT ANSWER-Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial
diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most
thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - CORRECT ANSWER-The
imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation
and wound healing? - CORRECT ANSWER-The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - CORRECT
ANSWER-Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
CORRECT ANSWER-Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one
Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? - CORRECT ANSWER-Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
,Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability
and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in
vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in
utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is
usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of
pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - CORRECT ANSWER-Macrophages work by eating
or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - CORRECT ANSWER-Helper T
cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - CORRECT ANSWER-Immunogenicity is primarily
based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing
an ABO incompatibility? - CORRECT ANSWER-The complement pathway is
activated in response to blood incompatibility.
, What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - CORRECT
ANSWER-An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic
dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas,
which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and
yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - CORRECT ANSWER-Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days
after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to
result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative
test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of
exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - CORRECT ANSWER-Exotoxins are
released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - CORRECT ANSWER-The results of decreased fat
consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk
of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years
most likely to develop? - CORRECT ANSWER-Asbestos exposure results in an
increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Practice Nurse EXAM LATEST VERSION 2025 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a
missing gene? - CORRECT ANSWER-Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of
the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard
from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - CORRECT ANSWER-
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs
of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a
female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - CORRECT
,ANSWER-Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of
disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? -
CORRECT ANSWER-Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial
diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most
thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - CORRECT ANSWER-The
imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation
and wound healing? - CORRECT ANSWER-The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - CORRECT
ANSWER-Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
CORRECT ANSWER-Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one
Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? - CORRECT ANSWER-Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
,Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability
and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in
vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in
utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is
usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of
pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - CORRECT ANSWER-Macrophages work by eating
or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - CORRECT ANSWER-Helper T
cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - CORRECT ANSWER-Immunogenicity is primarily
based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing
an ABO incompatibility? - CORRECT ANSWER-The complement pathway is
activated in response to blood incompatibility.
, What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - CORRECT
ANSWER-An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic
dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas,
which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and
yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - CORRECT ANSWER-Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days
after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to
result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative
test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of
exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - CORRECT ANSWER-Exotoxins are
released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - CORRECT ANSWER-The results of decreased fat
consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk
of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years
most likely to develop? - CORRECT ANSWER-Asbestos exposure results in an
increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
