NAPSRx Exam Question Bank / NAPSR Exam Question Bank (Quiz 1 to Quiz 21 / Chapter 1 to Chapter 23) |Complete Question Bank for Exam Preparation|
NAPSR Exam Question Bank / NAPSRx Exam Preparation Practice Questions
NAPSRx® Exam Question Bank / NAPSR Exam Preparation Practice Questions
NAPSRx Exam Question Bank / NAPSR Exam Question Bank (Quiz 1 to Quiz 21 / Chapter 1 to Chapter 23)
NAPSRx Exam Preparation Practice Questions (Quiz 1 to Quiz 21 / Chapter 1 to Chapter 23)
Quiz 1, Chapter 1
1. Pharmaceuticals are arguably the most socially important healthcare product.
2. Pharmaceutical development is a high-risk undertaking, in which many promising leads prove
3. Pharmaceutical sales are highest in which geographical regions?
i. The U.S., Saudi Arabia, and Japan
ii. The U.S., Western Europe, and Japan
iii. Western Europe, Australia, and Canada
iv. Western Europe, Canada, and Saudi Arabia
4. The U.S. accounts for about ____ of the world’s pharmaceutical revenues.
5. Which of the following has fueled recent growth in the pharmaceutical industry?
i. increased international standardization and regulation
ii. international legalization of DTC advertising
iii. population growth and increased life expectancies
iv. all of these
6. According to your manual, which statement accurately describes the predicted relationship between
pharmaceutical companies and genomic research facilities?
i. "Genomic research company" is another term for "ethical research company."
ii. Partnerships between pharmaceutical companies and genomic companies will not prove
iii. Pharmaceutical companies have little to no interest in partnerships with genomic research companies.
iv. Pharmaceutical companies will be genomic research companies' biggest competitors in the coming years.
7. Prescription drug therapy is not cost-effective for insurance companies and healthcare providers.
8. The high price of healthcare is explained by the high price of medicines.
9. One of the oldest and least effective pharmaceutical marketing techniques is DTC (direct-to-consumer)
10. What influences the number of districts in a region?
i. the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent that region
ii. the region's population
iii. both the district's population and the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent
iv. none of these
11. What is an example of the regionalization of healthcare delivery systems?
i. California and Florida have different demographics.
ii. California and Florida have different drug companies.
iii. California and Florida have different DTC advertisements.
iv. California and Florida have different prescription reimbursement policies.
12. The heart of a pharmaceutical sales team is the Regional Manager.
13. Most DMs did not start as representatives.
14. How many territories are in a typical district?
i. 1 to 2
ii. 8 to 12
iii. 30 to 40
iv. 50 to 100
15. What is the most effective method for grabbing market share?
i. comparative selling
ii. criticizing the competition
iii. power point presentations
iv. questioning doctors' choices
Quiz 2 , Chapter 2 & 3
1. Pharmaceutical reps mainly visit pharmacies.
2. It usually only takes 1-2 calls to a physician before he or she commits to prescribing your product.
3. The pharmacist may dispense a product other than what the physician prescribed
4. According to Chapter 12 of your manual, which of the following would classify as "payers"?
5. According to your manual, what defines "ethical pharmaceutical companies"?
i. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to consumer organizations
ii. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to the NIH
iii. manufacturing generics
iv. researching and developing novel drugs
6. One of the most disappointing results of the pharmaceutical industry’s continued investment in R & D is
the few new drugs being approved and in development.
7. Thanks to modern medicines, how long are people newly diagnosed with HIV expected to live?
i. another 10 years
ii. another 20 years
iii. another 5 years
iv. another 50 years
8. How much has the average American lifespan increased since 1890?
i. almost 10 years
ii. almost 15 years
iii. almost 30 years
iv. almost 5 years
9. What is a treatment group?
i. a group of patients assigned to receive a specified treatment
ii. a group of patients who have volunteered to receive the active drug, but not the placebo
iii. A group of substances being tested
iv. A list of study protocols
10. What is the main difference between a blinded and double-blinded study?
i. A blinded study is performed to control the placebo effect whereas a double-blinded study is performed
to control the observer effect.
ii. A double-blinded study has two control groups, but a blinded study only has one.
iii. Blinded studies are more scientifically rigorous.
iv. In a double blinded study, neither the study staff nor the study participants know which subjects
are in the experimental group and which are in the control.
11. What does "asymptomatic" mean?
i. exhibiting atypical signs or symptoms that were not indicated in the product packaging
ii. not exhibiting signs or symptoms
iii. refusing treatment for symptoms
iv. toxic or harmful to the human body
Quiz 3 , Chapter 4
1. Which term denotes the study of bodily functions (as opposed to structures)?
2. In its broadest definition, a drug is any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the
3. How does the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) define a drug?
i. any substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of
disease, or a substance other than food intended to affect the structure or function of the body
ii. any substance that causes legitimate side effects
iii. any substance that outperforms a placebo
iv. any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body
4. Which statement about vitamins is CORRECT?
i. Most of the body's required vitamins are manufactured in the bone marrow.
ii. Most of the body's required vitamins are products of the body's metabolic processes.
iii. Most of the body's required vitamins must be taken in from outside the body.
iv. The body manufactures most of the vitamins it requires.
5. ADME testing measures the rate at which the body absorbs the drug, distributes it to the organs necessary
to produce the desired effect, metabolizes it into waste material and then excretes it from the body.
6. ADME testing is primarily used in what field?
7. Which statement about placebos is CORRECT?
i. By definition, placebos must b designed to affect everyone equally.
ii. Placebo effects can be distinguished from drugs because they are always desirable.
iii. Placebo effects can lead to withdrawal symptoms.
iv. Placebos can be distinguished from drugs because they do not lead to withdrawal symptoms.
8. On average, only about 5 of 4,000 drugs studied in the laboratory are eventually studied in people.
9. Which statement is TRUE about drugs taken sublingually?
i. Sublingual administration is the most common route of administration.
ii. Sublingual drugs are absorbed directly and almost immediately into the bloodstream.
iii. Sublingual drugs are used primarily to treat the mouth.
iv. Sublingual drugs must first pass through the intestinal wall and liver, just like oral drugs, but can be used in
patients with swallowing problems.
10. What are 3 of the 7 rights of drug administration?
i. the right patient, the right drug, and the right dose
ii. the right supervision, the right patient, and the right dose
iii. the right technique, the right documentation, and the right supervision
iv. the right to information about one's medication, the right to question one's treatment, and the right to a
11. Pro-drugs are administered in an active form, which is metabolized into an inactive form.
12. The kidney of an 85-year-old person excretes drugs only _____ as efficiently as that of a 35-year-old
i. around 15%
ii. around 30%
iii. around 50%
iv. This is impossible to predict because it depends on such a wide range of other factors.
13. The normal age-related decrease in kidney function can help doctors determine an appropriate dosage
based solely on a person’s age.
14. What DIFFERENTIATES a caplet from a tablet?
i. Caplets are made of compressed powder.
ii. Caplets are shaped like capsules and have film coatings to aid in swallowing.
iii. Caplets are used for sustained-release drugs.
iv. Caplets contain hard cylindrical granules, liquids, or some combination of these.
15. Where will you find the legend “Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”?
i. on the label of all prescription drugs
ii. on the labels of all generic drugs
iii. only on the labels of drugs dispensed at pharmacies (as opposed to, e.g., product samples at doctors'
iv. only on the labels of product samples
16. What happens in slow acetylators?
i. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase are less likely to reach toxic levels than in fast
ii. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach higher blood levels and remain in
the body longer.
iii. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach lower blood levels, but remain in the
iv. None of these statements apply to slow acetylators.
Quiz 4 , Chapter 4
1. About _____ of the people in the U.S. are "slow acetylators."
2. Which of the following statements about drug-drug interactions is INCORRECT?
i. Drug-drug interactions are always harmful.
ii. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect causing toxicity when taken together.
iii. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect intensifying each other's therapeutic effects
without any serious side effects.
iv. Opposition can involve two drugs with opposing actions interacting to reduce one's effectiveness but not
3. Smoking decreases the effectiveness of some drugs.
4. Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is INCORRECT?
i. Because dietary supplements are not drugs, interactions with drugs are not a concern.
ii. Dietary supplements are regulated as foods.
iii. Dietary supplements contain vitamins, minerals, amino acids, and/or herbs.
iv. all of these
5. Which statement/s is/are INCORRECT about an ideal drug, or "magic bullet" as Ehrlich phrased it?
i. It does not exist.
ii. It would be aimed precisely at a disease site.
iii. It would not harm healthy tissues.
iv. All of these statements are correct.
6. Which statement accurately differentiates resistance from tolerance?
i. Doctors can predict resistance but not tolerance.
ii. There is no difference between tolerance and resistance.
iii. Tolerance is caused by genetic mutations, but resistance is always innate.
iv. Tolerance refers to a person's diminished response to a drug after repeated use, while resistance
applies to microorganisms' or "cancel" cells' abilities to withstand drug effects.
7. Between 3% and 7% of hospital admissions in the United States are estimated to be for treatment of
adverse drug reactions.
8. Which statement is true about the universal scale for quantifying the severity of an adverse drug reaction?
i. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their chronicity.
ii. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their threat to life.
iii. None of these statements are true because the scale uses different criteria.
iv. None of these statements are true because there is no such scale.
9. Why is noncompliance a serious public health concern?
i. It erodes trust between physicians and pharmaceutical sales representatives.
ii. It increases the cost of medical care.
iii. It indicates a lack of accountability among healthcare providers.
iv. Noncompliance is a serious public health concern for all of these reasons.
10. Which of the following is NOT eligible for patent protection under U.S. regulations?
i. the drug itself
ii. the method of delivering and releasing the drug into the bloodstream
iii. the way the drug is made
iv. Companies can be granted patents for all of these things.
11. Drugs' trade names are often unrelated to their intended use.
12. Like foods and household products, generic drugs are usually lower quality than the brand name drugs for
which they are marketed as equivalents.
13. Legally, bioequivalence of different versions of a drug can vary by up to ________.
iv. The drugs must be 100% equivalent.
14. Which of the following statements about biologics is INCORRECT?
i. They are also called “large molecule" drugs.
ii. They are derived from living materials.
iii. They do not cause immune responses.
iv. Vaccines are a type of biologic.
15. “Large molecule” products are developed and manufactured by a chemical process.
16. What are drugs that attract or bind to cell receptors in order to mimic or enhance activities by
endogenous chemical messengers?
iii. orphan drugs
Quiz 5 , Chapter 4
1. Which term denotes how an API works in the body?
ii. mechanism of action
iii. site of action
iv. therapeutic group
2. What cements the active and inert components together to maintain cohesive portions?
3. What does the medical abbreviation "BID" denote?
i. as needed
ii. bioavailable in diet
iii. quality of drugs
iv. twice a day
4. What is the medical abbreviation for "as needed"?
5. Which components might cause patients' different reactions to brand name and generic drugs?
i. differences in active ingredients
ii. differences in inactive ingredients
iii. differences in both active and inactive ingredients
iv. Patients' reactions to a brand name and generic drugs are equivalent.
6. All cells have a nucleus.
7. Which of the following does NOT affect drug response?
i. the patient's genetic makeup, age, body size, and use of other drugs and dietary supplements.
ii. the patient's other conditions or diseases.
iii. whether or not the patient takes the drug properly
iv. All of these factors influence drug response.
8. Drug reactions are predictable because they do not occur after a person has been previously exposed to
the drug one or more times without any allergic reactions.
9. What is the typical relationship between a drug's site of administration and site of action?
i. They are usually somewhat removed from each other.
ii. They are usually the same site.
iii. They should not be the same site for economic reasons.
iv. They should not be the same site for safety reasons.
10. What is CMAX?
i. an abbreviation for the maximum concentration of white blood cells
ii. the peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve
iii. the time interval within which a given dose of a drug is expected to have a therapeutic effect
iv. the time of peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve
11. Which of the following is NOT a main concept in clinical pharmacology?
i. Drug Distribution and Elimination
12. Which of the following is NOT a route of drug administration?
13. How are intradermal drugs delivered?
i. by injection under the skin
ii. through a skin patch
iii. through a topical ointment
iv. under the tongue
14. What is an example of intravenous drug delivery?
i. a subcutaneous insulin injection
ii. a transdermal nicotine patch
iii. an injection of anesthetic directly into the bloodstream
iv. any type of pre-surgery anesthetic
15. What are the major organs of the gastrointestinal system?
i. the heart, the blood vessels, and the blood
ii. the lymph nodes and lymph vessels
iii. the mouth, esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, gallbladder, small and large intestines
iv. the nasal passages, the trachea, the diaphragm, and the lungs
Quiz 6 , Chapter 6
1. Who is normally responsible for selling to distributors?
ii. Local Territory Representatives
iv. Pharmacy Benefit Managers
2. How often do secondary drug wholesale distributors buy their drugs directly from manufactures?
ii. almost always
3. By FDA law, large chain pharmacies are not allowed to buy directly from drug manufactures.
4. Only 3 companies account for nearly 90% of all drug wholesale sales.
5. What type of sale bypasses the need for intermediary distributors?
i. brokerage sales
ii. drop shipment sales
iii. integrated delivery network sales
iv. manufacturer-direct sales
6. What is a group purchasing organization (GPO)?
i. a company that owns and operates 3 or fewer pharmacies
ii. a wholesaler that obtains drugs from manufacturers and delivers them directly to pharmacists'
iii. an entity consisting of two or more hospitals or other health care entities that negotiates
contracts on behalf of its members
iv. any distributor of a prescription drug that conducts at least 22 transactions every 2 years
7. Prescriptions dispensed by mail-order pharmacies are, on average, around ____________ than those
dispensed by retail pharmacies.
i. 3 times smaller
ii. just slightly smaller
iii. 3 times larger
iv. 10 times larger
8. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-stock sale?
i. brokerage sales
ii. dock-to-dock sales
iii. drop shipments
iv. All of these are examples of non-stock sales.
9. What is another term for rebates?
i. after-market arrangements
ii. in-state arrangements
iii. mail-order arrangements
iv. sell-side arrangements
10. The PDMA is the Prescription Drug Manufacturers Association.
11. A company that owns and operates three or fewer pharmacies is an ____________.
i. authorized distributor
ii. independent drug store
iii. in-state wholesaler
iv. integrated drug store
12. Which section of a drug's package insert information covers the usual dosage range?
i. clinical pharmacology
iv. indications and usage
13. Drug labels must include indications, usage information, and contraindications.
14. What should be included in the "description" section of a drug's package insert information?
i. the drug's proprietary name and the established name
ii. the indications
iii. the mechanism of action
Quiz 7 , Chapter 7
1. Exclusivity gives exclusive _____, is granted by the FDA, and can run concurrently with a patent or not.
i. marketing rights
ii. research work
iii. trademark assignment
2. What differentiates exclusivity from a patent?
i. Exclusivity can be granted at any time during a drug's lifespan.
ii. Exclusivity can encompass a wide range of claims, whereas patents do not.
iii. Exclusivity is only granted upon the drug's FDA approval.
iv. Exclusivity typically lasts longer than patents.
3. What is required of an invention for it to be worthy of patent protection?
i. It must be novel, useful, and not obvious.
ii. It must have been on the market for at least 3 months.
iii. It must have competitors.
iv. all of these
4. A generic drug is ______ to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality.
5. Which of the following is NOT required by the FDA's Criteria for Equivalency?
i. The drugs are adequately labeled.
ii. The drugs contain identical amounts of the same active ingredients.
iii. The drugs contain identical amounts of the same inactive ingredients.
iv. The drugs involve the same dosage form and route of administration.
6. A generic drug is ______ to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality.
7. What list is generally considered the most reliable source of information on therapeutically equivalent
i. "International Council on Harmonization (ICH) Handbook"
ii. “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence”
iii. The Blue Book
iv. The Red Book
8. Which of the following is an Orange Book rating?
9. What is the term for chemical equivalents which, when administered in the same amounts, will provide the
same biological or physiological availability as measured by blood and urine levels?
i. biological equivalents
ii. branded generics
iii. therapeutic alternatives
iv. therapeutic equivalents
10. What term denotes a drug that is identical or bioequivalent to the originator brand-name drug in dosage
form, safety, strength, route, quality, performance, characteristics, and intended use?
iii. therapeutic alternative
11. What term denotes the dispensing of an unbranded generic product for the product prescribed?
i. chemical substitution
ii. generic substitution
iii. pharmaceutical license
iv. Pharmacist's license
12. What is the duration of a patent challenge?
i. 2 weeks
ii. 4 weeks
iii. 180 Days
iv. 1 Year
Quiz 8 , Chapter 8
1. Ho w is a drug sample closet or cabinet like a grocery store shelf?
i. Drug sample closets are like grocery store shelves in all these ways.
ii. The generic products are usually kept on the top shelf.
iii. The more expensive products are always kept on the top shelf.
iv. The more visibility you can give your drug, the more likely that it will be prescribed.
2. Pharmaceutical representatives do not typically store and secure their own drug samples.
3. Sampling is sometimes the most important factor in a pharmaceutical rep’s success.
4. The FDA approves storage conditions for drug products.
5. Pharmaceutical representatives must always record the amount of drug samples left and obtain a
signature for that amount.
6. What is prohibited by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, as amended by the
Prescription Drug Marketing Act?
i. pharmaceutical companies providing research results directly to consumers
ii. the purchase of another company's drug research without written permission from the FDA
iii. the sale of pharmaceutical products to more than 8 different therapeutic classes
iv. the sale, purchase, or trade or offer to sell, purchase, or trade prescription drug samples
7. The federal government does not regulate the drug sampling for a pharmaceutical representative.
8. Which of the following is permitted by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act?
i. hospitals donating their prescription drug coupons to qualified charitable organizationss
ii. hospitals donating their prescription drug samples to qualified charitable organizationss
iii. hospitals selling their prescription drug samples to qualified charitable organizations at reduced costs
iv. none of these
9. Which entity issues monographs that define how drugs should be stored, and what variance is allowed in
their stated contents?
ii. Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
iii. International Council on Harmonization (ICH)
iv. United States Pharmacopoeial Convention
10. Storage conditions for drug products are based on information supplied by the manufacturer.
11. Medications are usually unaffected by changes in temperature, light, humidity, and other environmental
12. In which cases can degraded drugs SOMETIMES still be used?
iii. when the amount of remaining drug has not fallen lower than 85-90% of that stated on the label
iv. when the degraded drug causes additional side effects, but they are nonfatal
13. Drug recalls are almost always negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
14. Which problem would NOT be improved by electronic prescribing systems?
i. patients "doctor-shopping" for controlled substances
ii. pharmacists misreading presciptions
iii. physicians wasting time calling pharmacies
iv. none of these
15. What should you do if you receive a shipment from your employer and you notice that there are twice as
many samples as what is posted on the packing slip?
i. Call your Sales Manager to inform him/her of the mistake and ask for instructions on proper
ii. Give each physician twice as many samples as this will increase the promotion of this particular drug.
iii. Store the samples for your next trade show.
iv. Store the samples in your home office and use them as samples as needed.
Quiz 9 , Chapter 9
1. Which area of drug R&D has seen the largest cost increases?
i. animal testing
ii. clinical trials
iv. self regulation
2. On average, how long does it take for a new drug to be developed (i.e., from the discovery of the initial
compound to FDA approval)?
i. 3-5 years
ii. 10-15 years
iii. 15-20 years
iv. 20-30 years
3. Which of the following regulatory agencies is industry-based (i.e., run mainly by the companies
i. Drug Enforcement Administration
ii. European Medicines Agency
iii. Pharmaceutical Research and Manufactures of America (PhRMA)
iv. the FDA
4. Which of the following factors has simplified the pharmaceutical R&D process?
i. an intensive regulatory process
ii. growing demand in the medical community for more complex data about pharmaceuticals
iii. the increasing number of procedures in Phase III trials
iv. none of these
5. The landmark FDA Modernization Act of 1997 was a major step forward in enabling safe and effective
new drugs and biologics to be made available sooner to patients.
6. According to your manual, which type of system is the best way to deliver healthcare?
i. a central-price system
ii. a market-based system
iii. a non-negotiable system
iv. a patient-restrictive system
7. How would increased pharmaceutical price controls affect the U.S. healthcare system?
i. Increased price controls would encourage the development of more life-saving medicines.
ii. Increased price controls would limit the FDA's power.
iii. Increased price controls would similarly increase companies' incentives to invest in R&D.
iv. Increased price controls would stifle innovation.
8. Which of the following invests a greater percentage of sales in research than the biotech sector?
i. the aerospace sector
ii. the communications sector
iii. the electronics sector
iv. none of these
9. What was the intent of the Bayh-Dole Act and the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Innovation Act?
i. to curb the commercialization of technologies
ii. to hasten the commercialization of technologies that otherwise might not be used
iii. to keep government-funded ideas under government control
iv. to secure funding for public university-based research initiatives
10. According to your manual, what did the G10 Medicines Group recently report about the pharmaceutical
industry in the European Union (EU)?
i. The EU pharmaceutical industry has surpassed the US pharmaceutical industry because of increased price
controls in the EU.
ii. The EU pharmaceutical industry has surpassed the US pharmaceutical industry because of increased price
controls in the US.
iii. The EU should continue to discourage links between private and public research facilities.
iv. There is poor collaboration between publicly- and privately-funded research centers.
Quiz 10 , Chapter 10
1. The aim of preclinical pharmacological studies is to obtain data on the safety and effectiveness of the lead
2. Toxicity information in preclinical studies helps provide confidence about a drug's safety.
3. Pharmacological studies using animals are regulated under Good Laboratory Practice.
4. Why do drugs administered to patients only contain APIs?
i. economic reasons
ii. for reasons of safety and economics
iii. safety reasons
iv. They don't.
5. Which of the following does NOT affect a drug's ability to permeate membranes?
i. the drug's chemical composition
ii. the drug's polarity
iii. the drug's size
iv. the drug's vesicles
6. Through which barriers can lipid-soluble drugs usually pass?
i. cell membranes
ii. the blood brain barrier, but not the gastroinstestinal tract
iii. the gastrointestinal tract, but not the blood brain barrier
iv. neither the gastrointestinal tract nor the blood-brain barrier
7. How are weak acid drugs generally absorbed by the stomach?
i. at about the same speed as weak basic drugs
ii. more quickly than weak basic drugs
iii. more slowly than weak basic drugs
iv. not at all
8. Which of the following routes of administration do NOT completely bypass the liver?
i. intravenous administration
ii. rectal administration
iii. transdermal administration
iv. All of these completely bypass the liver.
9. Why are intravenous drug dosages easier to control than drugs administered transdermally?
i. Intravenous drugs are neutralized by the pH conditions of the gastrointesinal tract.
ii. Intravenous drugs are subject to first-pass metabolism by the liver.
iii. The entire dose is available in the bloodstream to be distributed to the target site.
iv. The site of administration is the same as the site of action.
10. Which of the following does NOT affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues?
i. the drug's lipid-solubility
ii. the drug's polarity
iii. the vascular nature of the drug's target tissue
iv. All of these factors affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues.
11. Which of these medical terms means “to apply the drug on the skin surface”?
12. Carcinogenicity studies are carried out to identify the tumor-causing potential of a drug.
Quiz 11 , Chapter 11
1. According to NIH ethical guidelines, which of the following is the most important criteria in selecting
subjects for clinical studies?
ii. relative risk
iii. scientific objectives
2. Which statement about the IRB is INCORRECT?
i. The investigator must inform the IRB/IEC of any changes in the research activity.
ii. The IRB/IEC acts as a third party to oversee the welfare of the trial subjects
iii. The IRB/IEC has the right to stop a trial or require that procedures and methods be changed.
iv. The members of the IRB/IEC must be experts in the topic of the study
3. Which phases of clinical studies are "open label" and which are blinded?
i. All clinical trials are blinded except for Phase I.
ii. All clinical trials are blinded except for Phase IV.
iii. All clinical trials are blinded.
iv. Phase I and IV trials are often open label, but Phase II and III are double-blinded or at least blinded.
4. If it is not possible to measure the direct effects of a drug, what is used instead?
i. likelihood ratios
ii. odds ratios
iii. predictive values
iv. surrogate markers such as blood pressure and cholesterol levels
5. Which of the following is an observational study that first identifies a group of subjects with a certain
disease and a control group without the disease, and then looks to back in time (e.g., via chart reviews) to
find exposure to risk factors?
i. case series
ii. case-control study
iii. cross-sectional study
iv. longitudinal cohort study
6. Which measure of central tendency is the sum of all observations divided by the number of observations?
i. interquartile range
7. Which measurement describes the number of new events that occur during a specified period of time in a
population at risk for the event (e.g., lung infections per year)?
ii. odds ratio
iv. relative risk
8. Which of the following measures is used to describe the variability of the population mean?
iii. standard deviation
iv. standard error of the mean
9. Which of the following terms denotes the extent to which a test actually measures what it is supposed to
be measuring, or what we think it is measuring?
10. What are the Kaplan-Meier analysis and Cox proportional hazards analysis?
i. measures of inference errors
ii. methods for ensuring validity
iii. methods of survival analysis
iv. types of surrogate markers
11. What section of a clinical paper describes subjects' entry and exclusion criteria?
12. Which document sets out how a trial is to be conducted (i.e., the study's general design and operating
i. case report
ii. consent form
iii. inclusion criteria
13. When designing and performing clinical trials, several ethical constraints must be considered. Which of the
following is NOT one of these ethical constraints?
i. geographic variations
ii. independent review
iii. scientific validity
iv. social value
Quiz 12 , Chapter 12
1. What is one way in which "large molecule" drugs DIFFER from "small molecule" drugs?
i. Large molecule drugs are mainly protein-based drugs that develop in biological systems such as
ii. Large molecule drugs are synthesized using techniques based on chemical reactions of reactants.
iii. Small molecule drugs are also known as biopharmaceuticals.
iv. Small molecule drugs are mainly protein-based drugs that develop in biological systems such as living
2. Which of the following statements about vaccines is INCORRECT?
i. After initial vaccination, booster doses may be needed to maximize vaccines' immunological effects.
ii. Vaccine development focuses on how to reduce virulence while retaining the ability to produce immunity.
iii. Vaccines are types of "small molecule" drugs.
iv. Vaccines contain antigenic components that are obtained from or derived from the pathogen.
3. What is an advantage of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines?
i. Attenuated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.
ii. Attenuated vaccines do not revert to virulence.
iii. Attenuated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.
iv. Attenuated vaccines require multiple doses.
4. How are toxoids derived?
i. from a patients' own MHC markers
ii. from the body's naturally occuring immune globulins
iii. from the body's naturally occuring neurotransmitters
iv. from the toxins secreted by a pathogen
5. What is the estimated annual death toll for malaria?
i. 300 to 500 million people
ii. 300,000 to 500,000 people
iii. 500,000 to 1 million people
iv. 1.5 to 3.5 million people
6. There are more white blood cells than red blood cells for the same volume in the human body.
7. How was insulin primarily obtained from the 1930s to the 1980s?
i. artificial human growth factors
ii. non-diabetic human donors
iii. porcine and bovine extracts
iv. recombinant biopharmaceutical processes
8. Which of the following are NOT types of cytokines?
iv. All of these are types of cytokines.
9. Which of the following is NOT a type of hormones?
i. amino acid derivatives
ii. blood glucose
10. Which of the following is a basic gene therapy technique?
i. in situ, in which patients' genetically faulted tissues are removed, loaded with normal genes in vectors, and
returned to the patients' bodies
ii. in situ, in which patients' tissues are removed, transplanted into animal donors where the normal genes
are produced, and then returned to the patients' bodies
iii. in vitro, in which patients' genetically faulted tissues are removed, loaded with normal genes in
vectors, and returned to the patients' bodies
iv. in vitro, in which patients' tissues are removed, transplanted into animal donors where the normal genes
are produced, and then returned to the patients' bodies
11. Which statement about stem cells is CORRECT?
i. Multipotent stem cells are the most controversial because they can only be harvested from embryos.
ii. Multipotent stem cells can develop into a much broader range of types of cells than pluripotent or
iii. Pluripotent stem cells can develop into many cell types, but not a new individual.
iv. Totipotent stem cells can produce a number of specialized cells, but not a new individual.
12. Leukemia is a condition in which the stem cells in the bone marrow malfunction and produce an excessive
number of immature white blood cells.
13. Which of the following are types of vectors used in gene therapy?
i. multipotent stem cells
ii. pluripotent stem cells
iv. totipotent stem cells
14. Which of the following is NOT a type of stem cell?
15. Traditional vaccines are prepared in a number of ways. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
Quiz 13 , Chapter 13
1. Effective drug therapy is a cost-effective and highly valuable means of controlling total healthcare
expenditures and improving quality of life.
2. Drug utilization review (DUR) programs…
i. ...have traditionally been used to ensure the appropriate, safe, and effective use of prescription
drugs, but are increasingly shifting their focus to minimizing costs.
ii. ...have traditionally been used to minimize costs, but are increasingly focused on ensuring the appropriate,
safe, and effective use of prescription drugs..
iii. …are increasingly popular, and expected to be used by almost 90% of HMOs in the coming years.
iv. …seldom require retrospective monitoring of physicians' prescribing patterns.
3. DUR programs involve retrospective monitoring of physicians’ prescribing patterns.
4. A formulary is a list of prescription drugs approved by insurance coverage.
5. The history of drug formularies in the U.S. extends back to…
i. ...the 1980s.
ii. ...the American Revolution.
iii. ...the mid-twentieth century.
iv. ...the Victorian era.
6. Which of these is NOT a type of formulary?
i. a closed three-tier formulary in which generic drugs are listed on Tier 1
ii. a five-tier formulary that is supplemented by a step therapy program
iii. an open formulary that places few restrictions on coverage or access
iv. All of these are types of formularies.
7. Which of the following is NOT a recent formulary trend?
i. multi-tier strategies
ii. prior authorization
iii. step therapy
iv. the repeal of Hatch-Waxman
8. What did the Hatch-Waxman Act do?
i. make it easier for generic manufacturers to compete with R&D companies
ii. make it more difficult for generic manufacturers to compete with R&D companies
iii. make it more difficult for generic manufacturers to manufacture and distribute off-patent drugs
iv. none of these
9. What is opportunity cost?
i. the resources required to have multiple opportunities
ii. the resources required to make a decision
iii. the value of a sacrificed alternative
iv. the value of having multiple opportunities
10. According to your manual, the three primary entities that fund pharmaceuticals are employers, the
government (Medicare and Medicaid), and ______.
11. Which of these individuals would NOT be a member of a P&T committee?
i. a company's medical liaison
ii. an attending physician
iii. the physician who heads the surgery department
iv. All of these people are typically members of the P&T committee.
12. Almost 98% of employed Americans are now covered by a HMO, a preferred provider organization, or a
Quiz 14 , Chapter 14 & 15
1. Pharmaceutical companies are more interested in acquiring and exploiting another’s brands than in
acquiring another's R&D and sales and marketing assets.
2. Ideally, when should brand strategy development for a new drug begin?
i. as soon as a clinical need is identified
ii. as soon as a lead compound has been discovered
iii. during Phase II clinical trials
iv. during Phase IV trials
3. Which of the following is an example of a "expressive" value?
i. "I own a BMW because I like feeling the road."
ii. "I own a BMW because I like the bells and whistles."
iii. "I own a BMW because I want people to know that I'm a serious driving enthusiast."
iv. "I own a BMW because it's German like I am."
4. According to your manual, which of the following is NOT an example of a "functional" value?
5. It is rare for pharmaceutical companies to explore, develop, and promote expressive values with which
patients might identify.
6. To be competitive, pharmaceutical brands must be distinctive. They must possess defining characteristics
that are perceived by customers to be unique, attractive, and relevant to their needs.
7. With the global need for new drugs, pharmaceutical brand names are not subject to regulatory approval.
8. How has DTC advertising changed over the last few decades?
i. DTC advertising has become a tactic used only by large brands.
ii. DTC advertising has become a tactic used only by small brands.
iii. DTC advertising has become an essential marketing tactic for both large and small brands.
iv. DTC advertising has become an important marketing tactic all over the world.
9. Which of the following MOST strongly influences physicians' prescribing habits?
i. doctors' personal experiences, and their patients' unique situations
ii. DTC advertising
iii. other types of pharmaceutical marketing
iv. patients' opinions about DTC advertising
10. Pharmaceutical companies spend more onpromotional activities than on R&D.
11. Which of the following would be MOST well-served by mass-market print and TV ads?
i. a brand that treats a rare, acute condition
ii. a brand that treats a small but active patient base
iii. a brand that treats a very common chronic condition
iv. a very expensive brand
Quiz 15 , Chapter 16
1. Which of the below is the least commonly analyzed fluid for conducting a medical diagnostic test?
iii. Fluid that surrounds the spinal cord
2. "Gold standard" testing achieves the greatest results among the diagnostic testing measurements. Gold
standards provide the best understanding of what is happening to a patient so cost is not a factor when
deciding to run these tests routinely.
3. Every test has some risk. The risk may be the possibility of injury during the test, or it may be the need for
further testing if the results are abnormal.
4. For Genetic Testing, which of the below cell material is not commonly used for examination to check
abnormalities of chromosomes, genes (including DNA), or both?
iv. Bone Marrow
5. There are 4 common test sites for Bone Marrow aspiration and biopsy. Which of the below is not one of
i. Rear upper pelvic bone
ii. Central flat bone of the chest
iii. The bottom bone of the foot
iv. The larger shin bone (tibia)
6. DEXA is the only method that may be used to make a definitive diagnosis of osteoporosis and to moniter
the response to treatment.
7. Which of the below tests uses a small needle censors (electrodes) to record the electrical activity in
selected muscles and peripheral nerves during rest?
i. Cranial test
ii. Muscle biopsy (BP)
iii. Gait test
iv. Electromyography (EMG)
8. Wearable and implantable test technologies currently in development will allow for constant monitoring of
body chemistry and collection of previously inaccessible data.
9. Diagnostic tests are never used to detect, confirm, or rule out the presence of a disease or medical
10. Diagnostic tests are done for a variety of reasons, which of the below is not a reason to perform a
ii. Provide a single purpose for scientific analysis
iii. Evaluating the severity of a disorder so that treatment can be planned
iv. Monitoring the response to treatment
11. Many diagnostic tests are considered to be of a general therapeutic are and are not specified.
12. The most sensitive screening tool to detect osteoporosis- a disorder characterized by fragile, weak bones
due to a drop in bone mass and increased risk of fracture is the Arthrocentesis diagnostic test.
13. Neurodiagnostic tests are done because of a patients illness or condition are mostly based in the central
nervous system (brain or spinal cord). Which of the below is not a sign of a nervous system disorder?
i. Chronic headaches
14. The Electroencephalogram (EEG or brain wave test) is a non-invansive procedure used to detect and
record brain wave cell activity.
15. A coronary aniogram is obtained by injecting an iodine-based dye or other contrast agent into the
bloodstream and takin x-rays of the coronary arteries.
Quiz 16 , Chapter 17
1. How do companies use prescriber data?
i. in all of these ways
ii. to conduct research
iii. to identify individual patients who the physician should speak with about the product
iv. to indentify patients who can be added to targeted mailing lists
2. Under PhRMA Code, which of the following is acceptable?
i. cash for a meal if the food at an educational event has run out, given that the cash is from the rep's own
ii. cash for a meal if the food at an educational event has run out, given that the cash is NOT from the rep's
iii. modest meals during recreational events at which some educational information is exchanged
iv. modest meals for staff members attending educational events
3. Under the AMA Guidelines on Gifts to Physicians from Industry, which gifts are NOT permitted?
i. clipboards and pens worth less than $100
ii. drug samples for personal use, given that the physician is retired
iii. gifts that are only given to doctors with high prescribing volumes
iv. None of these are permitted.
4. Under PhRMA Code, which of the following actions by sales reps are permitted?
i. giving attendees cash from their companies so that they can purchase meals after event food has run out
ii. giving attendees cash from their own pockets so that they can purchase meals after event food has run
iii. modest meals during recreational events at which some educational information is exchanged
iv. providing modest meals to staff members attending educational events
5. The PhRMA Code on Interactions with Healthcare Professionals is only voluntary and not mandatory.
6. Which of the following would NOT be considered acceptable promotional items under PhRMA Code?
i. journal subscriptions
ii. medical text books
iii. pens and clipboards designed to be used by patients in doctors' offices
7. Under PhRMA Code, what is one example of an acceptable patient education item?
i. a pedometer valued under $100
ii. a stopwatch valued under $100
iii. an anatomical model valued under $100
iv. any of these
8. Under what circumstances does PhRMA Code permit a company to provide entertainment or recreational
activities to healthcare practitioners?
i. when the activity is intended to facilitate informational exchange
ii. when the practitioner is acting as a bone fide advisory board consultant
iii. when the practitioner is providing a legitimate service to the company
iv. under none of these circumstances
9. Under PhRMA Code, may a company sponsor a lunch at a 3-day conference if part of it includes an
educational program for which attendees may choose to receive CME credit?
i. yes, as long as it is modest
ii. yes, as long as the group sponsoring the event has approved it
iii. yes, but only if if the lunch is clearly separate from the CME portion of the conference
iv. no, under no circumstances
10. Which of the following is an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services that investigates
regulatory infractions, provides compliance advice, and brings enforcement actions?
i. American Medical Association
ii. Drug Enforcement Agency
iii. Federal Trade Commission
iv. Office of Inspector General
Quiz 17 , Chapter 18
1. It is illegal to ask receptionists for personal information about your clients such as home phone numbers,
birthdays, or hobbies.
2. Which of the following is NOT a primary goal or function of the P&T committee?
i. to assist in research on investigational drugs
ii. to budget the hospital's pharmaceutical expenses
iii. to educate sales representatives on legal and ethical guidelines for professional behavior
iv. to monitor drug utilization
3. Which of the following is a major challenge facing family medicine?
i. fewer and fewer patients, because most people are opting to see specialists
ii. managed care policies eroding patient-doctor relationships
iii. too many medical students and not enough positions
iv. Family medicine faces all of these challenges.
4. According to your manual, family physicians diagnose and treat approximately what proportion of patients
they see (as opposed to referring them to specialists)?
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps on the Product Adoption Continuum?
iv. These are all steps on the continuum.
6. Which of the following would be classified as a type of somatic psychiatric treatment?
i. drug therapy
ii. family therapy
7. Why is the last 10 minutes of each hour usually the best time to make office visits to psychiatrists?
i. Psychiatric research has shown that people are more open-minded at that time.
ii. Psychiatric research has shown that people are more relaxed at that time.
iii. Psychiatrist often see patients on the hour for 45 minutes.
iv. Psychiatrists are usually on their way to the hospital at that time.
8. What is/are an advantage/s of selling to residents?
i. All of these are advantages of selling to residents.
ii. It is easier to meet one-on-one with residents than with more established physicians.
iii. Residents are often more open-minded.
iv. You do not need to face the challenges of a group-selling environments.
9. What is drug utilization review (DUR)?
i. a PBM’s participation in a health plan
ii. acceleration of recovery of patients
iii. an MCO’s practice of monitoring prescribing patterns
iv. the FDA’s approval process and dates of drug delivery
10. What is a Drug Utilization Review (DUR)?
i. a FDA’s approval process and dates of drug delivery
ii. a MCO’s practice of monitoring prescribing patterns
iii. a PBM’s participation in a health plan
iv. an individual physician's monitoring of his patients' recoveries
Quiz 18 , Chapter 19
1. What is the focus of the short call protocol?
i. asking a quick yes-or-no question so that you can move to the close
ii. beginning with a specific clinical study
iii. beginning with a specific patient type
iv. just asking for a few more minutes so that you do not need to bother them again
2. Who is the Medical Science Liaison (MSL)?
i. someone employed by a hospital who coordinates sales representatives' visits
ii. someone employed by a hospital who heads the P&T committee and manages the formulary
iii. someone employed by a pharmaceutical company who builds relationships with thought leaders
and acts as an informational resources
iv. someone employed by a university who coordinates privately funded clinical studies
3. What type of education do MSLs typically have?
i. bachelor's degrees
ii. graduate-level science degrees
iii. master's degrees
iv. only a little college, because their sales experience is far more important
4. How do companies typically judge the MSL team's contributions?
ii. return on education
iii. the individual MSL's sales records
iv. the projected sales potential of the MSL's sales representatives
5. What differentiates "push through" programs from "pull through" programs?
i. "Push through" programs focus on individual patients.
ii. "Push through" programs take place at the physician level.
iii. Sales representatives are more involved in "pull through" programs.
iv. Sales representatives are more involved in "push through" programs.
6. Which of these is NOT a type of "pull through" program?
ii. educational support
iii. therapeutic intervention
iv. All of these are types of "pull through" programs.
7. Because pharmaceutical sales reps work mostly out of their homes, it is not important that they work well
in a team environment.
8. What is the MOST LIKELY reason that a doctor would lack interest in one of your clinical studies?
i. A competitor has told the doctor to ignore you.
ii. The doctor does not like the way you are presenting it.
iii. The doctor would prefer to feel like you are selling rather than educating.
iv. The doctor's receptionist has warned him about you.
9. Which of the following is NOT an effective method for reaching the 65 market?
i. being a Medicare Part D information resource
ii. knowing the physician-payer mix
iii. taking advantage of partnership programs
iv. All of these are effective methods for reaching the 65 market.
10. When a physician visits your hospital display, you should begin conversation by asking, “Can I help you?”?
Quiz 19 , Chapter 20
1. Which of the following is NOT a rule in making the most out of your sales calls?
i. counterpart coordination
ii. no data dumping
iii. reading the environment
iv. your agenda, not theirs
2. Specialty care products are more often prescribed by generalist physicians.
3. Side effects that might be considered merely minor annoyances in acute treatment can be a powerful
barrier to adoption in chronic therapies.
4. Acute medications, such as antibiotics, are used to address short-term illnesses or symptoms.
5. In some medical cases, a therapy may be initiated by a specialist and monitored and maintained by a
primary care physician.
6. Blockbuster drug status typically translates into sales of just under $10 million annually.
7. A generic drug manufacturer's greatest challenge is often to replicate drug formulation factors that affect
the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic characteristics of the original drug.
8. What differentiates an "orphan" drug from a "blockbuster" drug?
i. By FDA Law, orphan drugs have been previously rejected by the FDA
ii. Orphan drugs are pediatric therapies.
iii. Orphan drugs typically generate far more revenue.
iv. Orphan drugs typically treat rare conditions.
9. How long are most calls and visits to physicians' offices (excluding waiting and driving time)?
i. only a few minutes
ii. 15-30 minutes
iii. 30-45 minutes
iv. about an hour
10. Which of the following is NOT a step in managing rumors?
ii. counter attack
11. According to the text, which of the following is considered "going to the next level?"
i. becoming a micro-thinker
ii. meeting the clients' every need
iii. minimizing rumors
iv. staying focused
12. What is one of the primary job responsibilities of a retail pharmacist?
i. dispensing pharmaceuticals
ii. managing formularies
iii. manufacturing pharmaceuticals
iv. prescribing pharmaceuticals
13. What is NOT one of the ways in pharmaceutical companies and representatives categorize their
i. acute care vs. chronic care
ii. office-based vs. hospital-based
iii. primary care vs. specialty care
iv. Companies and agents categorize their patients in all of these ways.
Quiz 20 , Chapter 21
1. Which of the following are relatively new prescription drug benefits covered under the Medicare
Prescription Drug Improvement & Modernization Act?
i. HMO Plan 2006
ii. Medicare Part A
iii. Medicare Part B
iv. Medicare Part D
2. Which term means “disease producer”?
3. Which type of blood cell plays the most prominent role in fighting infection and disease?
i. red blood cell
ii. stem cell
iii. validated blood cell
iv. white blood cell
4. Which of the following generally resides on a cell surface (or in the cytoplasm) and causes a biological
change or activity when stimulated?
5. Renal pertains to:
6. What term denotes the practice of locating genes on a chromosome?
i. gene delivery
ii. gene mapping
iii. gene therapy
7. What field is MOST concerned with drug effects due to slight genetic differences?
8. Which entity or entities fund/s the National Institutes of Health (NIH)?
ii. Pharmaceutical Companies
iii. United Nations
iv. United States Federal Government
9. With respect to the material in your manual, what does IDN stand for?
i. immunodeficient drug
ii. independent drug network
iii. integrated delivery network
iv. internal doctors network
10. What is SS an abbreviation for?
ii. senior specialist
iii. Stark Law I & II
iv. successful sale
11. What term is used to denote drugs that are non-biological (i.e., chemical) in nature?
ii. large molecule
iii. parenteral drug
iv. small molecule
12. When referring to medication dosage, which medical abbreviation denotes “hour”?
13. Which of the following terms denotes the study of drugs' beneficial and toxic effects on living cells,
tissues, and organisms?
14. What are specialized cells and tissues that work together to perform a specific body function for a
15. What is the mechanism of action?
i. a dose of medication that keeps/maintains the necessary plasma concentration levels for therapeutic
ii. the method by which a medication produces its therapeutic effects
iii. time period between administering a medication and noticing a therapeutic effect
iv. typically oral or parenteral
16. What is plasma?
i. the fluid portion of the blood
ii. the fluid portion of the lymphatic system
iii. the lining of the lungs
iv. the lining of the small intestine
17. What is anaphylaxis?
i. a type of chemotherapy
ii. An extreme sensitivity and reaction to a foreign substance, including medications
iii. An interaction in which one medication reduces the effects of another medication
iv. When a medication produces active metabolites
Quiz 21 , Chapter 22 & 23
1. Which of the following is NOT a way in which CNS agents are used?
i. as analgesics
ii. as anesthetics
iii. as anti-convulsants
iv. They are used in all these ways.
2. How do cholinergic agonists work?
i. by inhibiting the actions of acetylcholine
ii. by inhibiting the actions of GABA
iii. by mimicking the actions of acetylcholine
iv. by mimicking the actions of GABA
3. Which of the following types of therapeutic agents is used to promote blood clot formation?
ii. antiplatelet drugs
iv. thrombolytic drugs
4. Which of the following is NOT a type of gastrointestinal agents?
i. gallstone solubizing agents
ii. H2 antagonists
iv. prolactin inhibitors
5. What is one of the main functions of a tocolytic agent?
i. to decrease urine pH
ii. to increase urine pH
iii. to induce labor
iv. to suppress labor
6. Which of these conditions is NOT treated with antiandrogens?
iii. masculinization in women
iv. polycystic ovarian syndrome
7. which types of patients are MOST likely to receive immune globulins?
i. patients with inflammatory conditions
ii. patients with weakened immune systems
iii. transplant recipients
iv. all of these
8. What is iron's primary function in the body?
i. carrying oxygen
ii. inhibiting dopamine
iii. mimicking dopamine
iv. neutralizing gastric pH
9. Which of the following is NOT a type of anti-infectant?
ii. antimalarial agents
10. What is one difference between entry-level and experienced résumés?
i. Entry-level résumés are more likely to begin with the education section than the experience
ii. Entry-level résumés are more likely to contain a Summary of Qualifications.
iii. Experienced résumés are more likely to contain an Objective.
iv. Experienced résumés contain more extracurricular activities.
11. Which statement about targeted cover letters is true?
i. Targeted cover letters are always solicited.
ii. Targeted cover letters are always tailored to specific companies.
iii. Targeted cover letters are only written for vacant positions.
iv. Targeted cover letters should be written in the third-person.