2025 NURS 511 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS)100% GUARANTEED
PASS
a 21 year old male presents to the clinic with pruritic and emacerated skin
in the groin area. Which is this? CORRECT ANSWER--
tinea cruris
Marcia, age 4, is brought in to the office by her mother. She has a sore
throat, difficulty swallowing, copious oral secretions, respiratory difficulty,
stridor, and a temperature of 102°F but no pharyngeal erythema or
cough. What do you suspect? CORRECT ANSWER--
• Epiglottitis
• Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis
• Tonsillitis
• Diphtheria
• Epiglottitis (A symptom cluster of severe throat pain with difficulty
swallowing, copious oral secretions, respiratory difficulty, stridor, and
fever but without pharyngeal erythema or cough is indicative of
epiglottitis)
(Streptococcal pharyngitis presents with cervical adenitis, petechiae, a
beefy-red uvula, and a tonsillar exudate) (A mild case of tonsillitis may
appear to be only a slight sore throat. A more severe case would involve
inflamed, swollen tonsils; a very sore throat; and a high fever) (Diphtheria
starts with a sore throat, fever, headache, and nausea, and then
progresses to patches of grayish or dirty-yellowish membranes in the
throat that eventually grow into 1 membrane)
Peptic ulcer disease
symptom Burning/nawing
you are assessing a first grader, and find that the tonsils are touching
,the uvula: 3
(Grade 1 indicates the tonsils are visible)
(Grade 2 indicates the tonsils are halfway between the tonsillar pillars and
the uvula)
(Grade 3 indicates the tonsils are touching the uvula. Tonsils are enlarged
to 2, 3, or 4 with an acute infection)
(Grade 4 indicates the tonsils are touching each other)
A 54-year-old female presents to your primary care office for routine
reevaluation for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She has been
treated with diet modifications and 6 weeks of omeprazole without
improvement of her symptoms. What is the next step in management of
this patient's GERD? CORRECT ANSWER--
,• Order an endoscopy
• Order a Helicobacter pylori blood test
• Try adding ranitidine to the patient's regimen
• Try adding bismuth to the patient's regimen
•Order an endoscopy (This is the next step in treatment in order to
evaluate the etiology of the patient's GERD and consider biopsy if
necessary)
(The next step in care is an endoscopy. If warranted, a biopsy can be
done and sent for H pylori at that time) (H2 antagonists are considered
a less aggressive treatment for GERD and would likely not help the
patient's symptoms) (Bismuth can be added to help treat Helicobacter
pylori, but that diagnosis has not yet been made)
A 39 year old female reports a 10 year history of crohns disease. which
of the following is true of crohns disease? CORRECT ANSWER--
a. they have a higher risk of colon perf than UC.
b. the disease is isolated to the colon and occurs in rectosigmoid area
c. obstructions, fissures are seen with disease progression
d. mucosal surface of the colon is inflamed and friable? CORRECT ANSWER--
C
Michael, a 25-year-old military reservist, presents to your clinic for a rash
that began on his chest and has since developed into smaller lesions
that are more concentrated on the lower abdomen and pubic area. In
obtaining a history of the present illness, he reports that he had an upper
respiratory infection 1 month before the rash developed. He tells you it
started with 1 large oval-shaped lesion on his left chest, and 1 to 2 weeks
later he developed numerous smaller lesions on the lower abdomen and
groin. It has been 2 weeks since the smaller lesions developed, and he
tells you he is concerned that the rash isn't improving. As you examine the
patient, you note that the lesions are salmon-colored and have a thin
collarette of scale within them. The original lesion is still present. You
suspect Michael has:
• Guttate psoriasis.
• Tinea versicolor.
, • Secondary syphilis.
• Pityriasis rosea.
•Pityriasis rosea. Pityriasis rosea is a common, self-limiting, usually
asymptomatic eruption with a distinct initial lesion. This "herald patch,"
which appears suddenly and without symptoms, usually is on the
chest or back. Secondary lesions appear 1 to 2 weeks later while the
herald patch remains. The collarette scaling is another classic
symptom of pityriasis rosea. The lesions usually resolve
spontaneously in 4 to 12
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS)100% GUARANTEED
PASS
a 21 year old male presents to the clinic with pruritic and emacerated skin
in the groin area. Which is this? CORRECT ANSWER--
tinea cruris
Marcia, age 4, is brought in to the office by her mother. She has a sore
throat, difficulty swallowing, copious oral secretions, respiratory difficulty,
stridor, and a temperature of 102°F but no pharyngeal erythema or
cough. What do you suspect? CORRECT ANSWER--
• Epiglottitis
• Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis
• Tonsillitis
• Diphtheria
• Epiglottitis (A symptom cluster of severe throat pain with difficulty
swallowing, copious oral secretions, respiratory difficulty, stridor, and
fever but without pharyngeal erythema or cough is indicative of
epiglottitis)
(Streptococcal pharyngitis presents with cervical adenitis, petechiae, a
beefy-red uvula, and a tonsillar exudate) (A mild case of tonsillitis may
appear to be only a slight sore throat. A more severe case would involve
inflamed, swollen tonsils; a very sore throat; and a high fever) (Diphtheria
starts with a sore throat, fever, headache, and nausea, and then
progresses to patches of grayish or dirty-yellowish membranes in the
throat that eventually grow into 1 membrane)
Peptic ulcer disease
symptom Burning/nawing
you are assessing a first grader, and find that the tonsils are touching
,the uvula: 3
(Grade 1 indicates the tonsils are visible)
(Grade 2 indicates the tonsils are halfway between the tonsillar pillars and
the uvula)
(Grade 3 indicates the tonsils are touching the uvula. Tonsils are enlarged
to 2, 3, or 4 with an acute infection)
(Grade 4 indicates the tonsils are touching each other)
A 54-year-old female presents to your primary care office for routine
reevaluation for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She has been
treated with diet modifications and 6 weeks of omeprazole without
improvement of her symptoms. What is the next step in management of
this patient's GERD? CORRECT ANSWER--
,• Order an endoscopy
• Order a Helicobacter pylori blood test
• Try adding ranitidine to the patient's regimen
• Try adding bismuth to the patient's regimen
•Order an endoscopy (This is the next step in treatment in order to
evaluate the etiology of the patient's GERD and consider biopsy if
necessary)
(The next step in care is an endoscopy. If warranted, a biopsy can be
done and sent for H pylori at that time) (H2 antagonists are considered
a less aggressive treatment for GERD and would likely not help the
patient's symptoms) (Bismuth can be added to help treat Helicobacter
pylori, but that diagnosis has not yet been made)
A 39 year old female reports a 10 year history of crohns disease. which
of the following is true of crohns disease? CORRECT ANSWER--
a. they have a higher risk of colon perf than UC.
b. the disease is isolated to the colon and occurs in rectosigmoid area
c. obstructions, fissures are seen with disease progression
d. mucosal surface of the colon is inflamed and friable? CORRECT ANSWER--
C
Michael, a 25-year-old military reservist, presents to your clinic for a rash
that began on his chest and has since developed into smaller lesions
that are more concentrated on the lower abdomen and pubic area. In
obtaining a history of the present illness, he reports that he had an upper
respiratory infection 1 month before the rash developed. He tells you it
started with 1 large oval-shaped lesion on his left chest, and 1 to 2 weeks
later he developed numerous smaller lesions on the lower abdomen and
groin. It has been 2 weeks since the smaller lesions developed, and he
tells you he is concerned that the rash isn't improving. As you examine the
patient, you note that the lesions are salmon-colored and have a thin
collarette of scale within them. The original lesion is still present. You
suspect Michael has:
• Guttate psoriasis.
• Tinea versicolor.
, • Secondary syphilis.
• Pityriasis rosea.
•Pityriasis rosea. Pityriasis rosea is a common, self-limiting, usually
asymptomatic eruption with a distinct initial lesion. This "herald patch,"
which appears suddenly and without symptoms, usually is on the
chest or back. Secondary lesions appear 1 to 2 weeks later while the
herald patch remains. The collarette scaling is another classic
symptom of pityriasis rosea. The lesions usually resolve
spontaneously in 4 to 12
