ESTUDYR
MATERNITY NURSING PREGNANCY AND CHILDBIRTH
2025 MOST TESTED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
GRADED A+ WITH RATIONALES
1. What is the primary goal of early prenatal care?
A) To schedule a cesarean section
B) To optimize maternal and fetal health for positive outcomes
C) To determine the baby's gender as early as possible
D) To replace all maternal medications with herbal remedies
Rationale: Early prenatal care focuses on health optimization through risk assessment, education, and
monitoring to prevent complications.
2. Which of these is NOT a nurse's responsibility during prenatal visits?
A) Providing patient education
B) Monitoring vital signs
C) Prescribing medications independently
D) Reporting abnormalities to the OB/GYN
Rationale: Nurses cannot prescribe medications; they collaborate with providers for treatment plans.
3. The first prenatal visit is typically the longest because:
A) It includes delivery planning
B) Baseline data is collected for future comparison
C) The fetus's gender is confirmed
D) Labor analgesia options are discussed
Rationale: The initial visit establishes a health baseline, confirms pregnancy, and assesses risks.
4. Reproductive history includes all EXCEPT:
A) Age at menarche
B) LMP date
C) Maternal childhood vaccinations
D) GTPAL obstetric history
,ESTUDYR
Rationale: Childhood vaccines are part of medical history, not reproductive history.
5. A woman who has never been pregnant is termed:
A) Primigravida
B) Nulligravida
C) Multigravida
D) Grand multipara
Rationale: Nulligravida = no pregnancies; primigravida = first pregnancy.
Section 2: Clinical Assessments & History
6. GTPAL in obstetric history stands for:
A) Gestation, Twins, Preterm, Abortions, Live births
B) Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortions, Living children
C) Growth, Time, Parity, Age, Labor
D) Genetic testing, Pregnancy, Age, Labor
Rationale: GTPAL breaks down pregnancy outcomes systematically.
7. Medical-surgical history in prenatal care must include:
A) Sibling vaccination records
B) Chronic conditions (e.g., diabetes) and current medications
C) Pet ownership details
D) Childhood extracurricular activities
Rationale: Chronic diseases and medications directly impact pregnancy safety.
8. Family history assessment focuses on:
A) Maternal shoe size
B) Genetic disorders (e.g., cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia)
C) Paternal employment history
D) Grandparents’ dietary preferences
Rationale: Genetic risks vary by ethnicity (e.g., Tay-Sachs in Ashkenazi Jews).
,ESTUDYR
9. Social history screening should identify:
A) Favorite pregnancy foods
B) Substance use, domestic violence, and occupational hazards
C) Baby name preferences
D) Preferred nursery colors
Rationale: Psychosocial factors (e.g., smoking, abuse) significantly affect pregnancy.
10. Which lab test assesses rubella immunity?
A) CBC
B) Rubella titer
C) Urine culture
D) Pap smear
Rationale: Rubella titer checks immunity status (vaccination is contraindicated in pregnancy).
Section 3: Prenatal Testing & Calculations
11. A urine culture in pregnancy detects:
A) Fetal genetic abnormalities
B) Asymptomatic bacteriuria (can cause preterm labor)
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Placental position
Rationale: Untreated UTIs increase preterm birth risk.
12. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is ordered for patients at risk of:
A) Rubella
B) Sickle cell disease or thalassemia
C) Gestational hypertension
D) Twin pregnancies
Rationale: Screens for hemoglobinopathies common in African, Mediterranean, or Asian descent.
, ESTUDYR
13. Nägele’s rule calculates EDD by:
A) Adding 9 months to LMP
B) Adding 7 days to LMP, then subtracting 3 months
C) Using fetal ultrasound measurements
D) Counting 40 weeks from conception date
Rationale: LMP + 7 days – 3 months = EDD (assumes 28-day cycles).
14. A patient’s LMP was January 10. Her EDD is:
A) September 17
B) October 17
C) November 10
D) December 10
Rationale:
January 10 + 7 days = January 17
January 17 – 3 months = October 17.
15. Which finding suggests poor nutritional status in prenatal labs?
A) High rubella titer
B) Low hemoglobin (anemia)
C) Negative HIV test
D) Normal urine culture
Rationale: Anemia may indicate inadequate iron/folate intake.
Section 4: Risk Factors & Interventions
16. A patient with a history of preterm birth at 32 weeks would be documented in GTPAL as:
A) G1 P1 T1 P0 A0 L1
B) G1 P1 T0 P1 A0 L1
C) G1 P0 T1 P0 A0 L0
D) G1 P1 T0 P0 A1 L1
Rationale: Preterm (20–37 weeks) = "P" in GTPAL.
MATERNITY NURSING PREGNANCY AND CHILDBIRTH
2025 MOST TESTED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
GRADED A+ WITH RATIONALES
1. What is the primary goal of early prenatal care?
A) To schedule a cesarean section
B) To optimize maternal and fetal health for positive outcomes
C) To determine the baby's gender as early as possible
D) To replace all maternal medications with herbal remedies
Rationale: Early prenatal care focuses on health optimization through risk assessment, education, and
monitoring to prevent complications.
2. Which of these is NOT a nurse's responsibility during prenatal visits?
A) Providing patient education
B) Monitoring vital signs
C) Prescribing medications independently
D) Reporting abnormalities to the OB/GYN
Rationale: Nurses cannot prescribe medications; they collaborate with providers for treatment plans.
3. The first prenatal visit is typically the longest because:
A) It includes delivery planning
B) Baseline data is collected for future comparison
C) The fetus's gender is confirmed
D) Labor analgesia options are discussed
Rationale: The initial visit establishes a health baseline, confirms pregnancy, and assesses risks.
4. Reproductive history includes all EXCEPT:
A) Age at menarche
B) LMP date
C) Maternal childhood vaccinations
D) GTPAL obstetric history
,ESTUDYR
Rationale: Childhood vaccines are part of medical history, not reproductive history.
5. A woman who has never been pregnant is termed:
A) Primigravida
B) Nulligravida
C) Multigravida
D) Grand multipara
Rationale: Nulligravida = no pregnancies; primigravida = first pregnancy.
Section 2: Clinical Assessments & History
6. GTPAL in obstetric history stands for:
A) Gestation, Twins, Preterm, Abortions, Live births
B) Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortions, Living children
C) Growth, Time, Parity, Age, Labor
D) Genetic testing, Pregnancy, Age, Labor
Rationale: GTPAL breaks down pregnancy outcomes systematically.
7. Medical-surgical history in prenatal care must include:
A) Sibling vaccination records
B) Chronic conditions (e.g., diabetes) and current medications
C) Pet ownership details
D) Childhood extracurricular activities
Rationale: Chronic diseases and medications directly impact pregnancy safety.
8. Family history assessment focuses on:
A) Maternal shoe size
B) Genetic disorders (e.g., cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia)
C) Paternal employment history
D) Grandparents’ dietary preferences
Rationale: Genetic risks vary by ethnicity (e.g., Tay-Sachs in Ashkenazi Jews).
,ESTUDYR
9. Social history screening should identify:
A) Favorite pregnancy foods
B) Substance use, domestic violence, and occupational hazards
C) Baby name preferences
D) Preferred nursery colors
Rationale: Psychosocial factors (e.g., smoking, abuse) significantly affect pregnancy.
10. Which lab test assesses rubella immunity?
A) CBC
B) Rubella titer
C) Urine culture
D) Pap smear
Rationale: Rubella titer checks immunity status (vaccination is contraindicated in pregnancy).
Section 3: Prenatal Testing & Calculations
11. A urine culture in pregnancy detects:
A) Fetal genetic abnormalities
B) Asymptomatic bacteriuria (can cause preterm labor)
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Placental position
Rationale: Untreated UTIs increase preterm birth risk.
12. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is ordered for patients at risk of:
A) Rubella
B) Sickle cell disease or thalassemia
C) Gestational hypertension
D) Twin pregnancies
Rationale: Screens for hemoglobinopathies common in African, Mediterranean, or Asian descent.
, ESTUDYR
13. Nägele’s rule calculates EDD by:
A) Adding 9 months to LMP
B) Adding 7 days to LMP, then subtracting 3 months
C) Using fetal ultrasound measurements
D) Counting 40 weeks from conception date
Rationale: LMP + 7 days – 3 months = EDD (assumes 28-day cycles).
14. A patient’s LMP was January 10. Her EDD is:
A) September 17
B) October 17
C) November 10
D) December 10
Rationale:
January 10 + 7 days = January 17
January 17 – 3 months = October 17.
15. Which finding suggests poor nutritional status in prenatal labs?
A) High rubella titer
B) Low hemoglobin (anemia)
C) Negative HIV test
D) Normal urine culture
Rationale: Anemia may indicate inadequate iron/folate intake.
Section 4: Risk Factors & Interventions
16. A patient with a history of preterm birth at 32 weeks would be documented in GTPAL as:
A) G1 P1 T1 P0 A0 L1
B) G1 P1 T0 P1 A0 L1
C) G1 P0 T1 P0 A0 L0
D) G1 P1 T0 P0 A1 L1
Rationale: Preterm (20–37 weeks) = "P" in GTPAL.
