2025 ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam New Latest
Versions with 180 Questions, 100% Correct Answers
and Rationale
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which finding should the nurse report
immediately to the healthcare provider?
A) Weight gain of 1 lb overnight
B) Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
C) Crackles in the lower lung fields
D) Heart rate of 88 beats/min
Correct Answer: C) Crackles in the lower lung fields
Rationale: Crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a sign of worsening heart failure
requiring urgent intervention. A 1-lb weight gain is concerning but less immediate, while the BP
and HR are within normal limits.
Question 2
A client is prescribed digoxin 0.25 mg daily. Which action should the nurse take before
administration?
A) Check the client’s apical pulse
B) Assess the client’s respiratory rate
C) Monitor the client’s urine output
D) Review the client’s temperature
Correct Answer: A) Check the client’s apical pulse
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; the nurse must check the apical pulse (hold if <60
beats/min) to prevent toxicity. Other assessments are relevant but not specific to digoxin safety.
Question 3
A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is appropriate
to delegate?
A) Administering oral medications
B) Assisting a client with ambulation
C) Evaluating a client’s pain level
D) Adjusting an IV flow rate
Correct Answer: B) Assisting a client with ambulation
Rationale: UAPs can assist with activities of daily living like ambulation. Medication
administration, pain evaluation, and IV adjustments require a licensed nurse’s judgment and
skill.
Question 4
A 6-month-old infant is admitted with dehydration. Which assessment finding should the nurse
prioritize?
A) Dry mucous membranes
B) Sunken fontanelles
,C) Urine output of 2 mL/kg/hr
D) Capillary refill of 1 second
Correct Answer: B) Sunken fontanelles
Rationale: Sunken fontanelles are a critical sign of dehydration in infants due to fluid loss from
the intracranial space. Dry mucous membranes are expected, but sunken fontanelles indicate
severity.
Question 5
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports nausea and vomiting. The blood glucose is 450
mg/dL. What should the nurse suspect?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
C) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
D) Insulin overdose
Correct Answer: B) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Rationale: Hyperglycemia (450 mg/dL) with nausea and vomiting in type 1 diabetes suggests
DKA, caused by insulin deficiency and ketone production. HHS is more common in type 2
diabetes.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which food should the client limit?
A) Apples
B) Spinach
C) Chicken
D) Rice
Correct Answer: B) Spinach
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin’s anticoagulant effect.
Consistent intake is key, but sudden increases should be avoided.
Question 7
A postpartum client at 24 hours post-delivery reports severe headache and blurred vision. What
should the nurse suspect?
A) Postpartum hemorrhage
B) Preeclampsia
C) Migraine
D) Dehydration
Correct Answer: B) Preeclampsia
Rationale: Headache and blurred vision postpartum suggest preeclampsia, a hypertensive
disorder that can occur up to 6 weeks after delivery. These are neurologic symptoms requiring
immediate assessment.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which action is the priority during
suctioning?
A) Applying sterile gloves
B) Pre-oxygenating the client
,C) Using a saline lavage
D) Checking the suction pressure
Correct Answer: B) Pre-oxygenating the client
Rationale: Pre-oxygenation prevents hypoxemia during suctioning, a priority to maintain
oxygenation. Other actions are important but secondary.
Question 9
A client with schizophrenia says, “The voices tell me I’m worthless.” What is the nurse’s best
response?
A) “Those voices aren’t real.”
B) “I don’t hear any voices.”
C) “That must be frightening for you.”
D) “You need to ignore them.”
Correct Answer: C) “That must be frightening for you.”
Rationale: Acknowledging the client’s feelings validates their experience and builds trust
without reinforcing the hallucination. Dismissing or arguing with the perception is non-
therapeutic.
Question 10
A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells. What is the priority action?
A) Verify the client’s identity with two identifiers
B) Check the blood type on the bag
C) Warm the blood to room temperature
D) Start the infusion within 4 hours
Correct Answer: A) Verify the client’s identity with two identifiers
Rationale: Ensuring the right client prevents transfusion errors, a critical safety step before
checking blood type or starting the infusion.
Question 11
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen saturation of 88%.
What should the nurse do?
A) Increase oxygen to 4 L/min
B) Encourage deep breathing exercises
C) Administer a bronchodilator
D) Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B) Encourage deep breathing exercises
Rationale: An SpO2 of 88% is typical for COPD clients; the priority is to improve ventilation
non-invasively before escalating oxygen or notifying the provider.
Question 12
A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected peptic ulcer. Which finding should the nurse
expect?
A) Bright red stools
B) Black, tarry stools
C) Clay-colored stools
D) Foul-smelling diarrhea
, Correct Answer: B) Black, tarry stools
Rationale: Black, tarry stools (melena) indicate upper GI bleeding, common in peptic ulcers due
to digested blood. Bright red blood suggests lower GI bleeding.
Question 13
A 3-year-old is prescribed amoxicillin for an ear infection. The parent asks, “How do I give
this?” What is the nurse’s best response?
A) “Mix it with juice to improve the taste.”
B) “Give it with food to prevent stomach upset.”
C) “Administer it on an empty stomach.”
D) “Shake the bottle well before each dose.”
Correct Answer: D) “Shake the bottle well before each dose.”
Rationale: Amoxicillin suspension requires shaking to ensure even distribution of the
medication, a critical step for accurate dosing in pediatric clients.
Question 14
A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse
monitor?
A) Prothrombin time (PT)
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C) International normalized ratio (INR)
D) Platelet count
Correct Answer: B) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale: aPTT monitors heparin’s anticoagulant effect, with a therapeutic range typically 1.5-
2.5 times the baseline. PT/INR is for warfarin.
Question 15
A client with end-stage renal disease is on hemodialysis. Which dietary restriction should the
nurse reinforce?
A) Low-carbohydrate diet
B) High-protein intake
C) Potassium-rich foods
D) Calcium supplements
Correct Answer: C) Potassium-rich foods
Rationale: Potassium restriction is critical in renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys
cannot excrete excess potassium effectively.
Question 16
A nurse is planning care for a client with a new diagnosis of depression. Which intervention is
the priority?
A) Encouraging group therapy attendance
B) Assessing for suicidal ideation
C) Teaching coping strategies
D) Administering an antidepressant
Correct Answer: B) Assessing for suicidal ideation
Rationale: Safety is the priority; assessing suicide risk ensures immediate intervention if needed,
Versions with 180 Questions, 100% Correct Answers
and Rationale
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which finding should the nurse report
immediately to the healthcare provider?
A) Weight gain of 1 lb overnight
B) Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
C) Crackles in the lower lung fields
D) Heart rate of 88 beats/min
Correct Answer: C) Crackles in the lower lung fields
Rationale: Crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a sign of worsening heart failure
requiring urgent intervention. A 1-lb weight gain is concerning but less immediate, while the BP
and HR are within normal limits.
Question 2
A client is prescribed digoxin 0.25 mg daily. Which action should the nurse take before
administration?
A) Check the client’s apical pulse
B) Assess the client’s respiratory rate
C) Monitor the client’s urine output
D) Review the client’s temperature
Correct Answer: A) Check the client’s apical pulse
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; the nurse must check the apical pulse (hold if <60
beats/min) to prevent toxicity. Other assessments are relevant but not specific to digoxin safety.
Question 3
A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is appropriate
to delegate?
A) Administering oral medications
B) Assisting a client with ambulation
C) Evaluating a client’s pain level
D) Adjusting an IV flow rate
Correct Answer: B) Assisting a client with ambulation
Rationale: UAPs can assist with activities of daily living like ambulation. Medication
administration, pain evaluation, and IV adjustments require a licensed nurse’s judgment and
skill.
Question 4
A 6-month-old infant is admitted with dehydration. Which assessment finding should the nurse
prioritize?
A) Dry mucous membranes
B) Sunken fontanelles
,C) Urine output of 2 mL/kg/hr
D) Capillary refill of 1 second
Correct Answer: B) Sunken fontanelles
Rationale: Sunken fontanelles are a critical sign of dehydration in infants due to fluid loss from
the intracranial space. Dry mucous membranes are expected, but sunken fontanelles indicate
severity.
Question 5
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports nausea and vomiting. The blood glucose is 450
mg/dL. What should the nurse suspect?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
C) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
D) Insulin overdose
Correct Answer: B) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Rationale: Hyperglycemia (450 mg/dL) with nausea and vomiting in type 1 diabetes suggests
DKA, caused by insulin deficiency and ketone production. HHS is more common in type 2
diabetes.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which food should the client limit?
A) Apples
B) Spinach
C) Chicken
D) Rice
Correct Answer: B) Spinach
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin’s anticoagulant effect.
Consistent intake is key, but sudden increases should be avoided.
Question 7
A postpartum client at 24 hours post-delivery reports severe headache and blurred vision. What
should the nurse suspect?
A) Postpartum hemorrhage
B) Preeclampsia
C) Migraine
D) Dehydration
Correct Answer: B) Preeclampsia
Rationale: Headache and blurred vision postpartum suggest preeclampsia, a hypertensive
disorder that can occur up to 6 weeks after delivery. These are neurologic symptoms requiring
immediate assessment.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which action is the priority during
suctioning?
A) Applying sterile gloves
B) Pre-oxygenating the client
,C) Using a saline lavage
D) Checking the suction pressure
Correct Answer: B) Pre-oxygenating the client
Rationale: Pre-oxygenation prevents hypoxemia during suctioning, a priority to maintain
oxygenation. Other actions are important but secondary.
Question 9
A client with schizophrenia says, “The voices tell me I’m worthless.” What is the nurse’s best
response?
A) “Those voices aren’t real.”
B) “I don’t hear any voices.”
C) “That must be frightening for you.”
D) “You need to ignore them.”
Correct Answer: C) “That must be frightening for you.”
Rationale: Acknowledging the client’s feelings validates their experience and builds trust
without reinforcing the hallucination. Dismissing or arguing with the perception is non-
therapeutic.
Question 10
A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells. What is the priority action?
A) Verify the client’s identity with two identifiers
B) Check the blood type on the bag
C) Warm the blood to room temperature
D) Start the infusion within 4 hours
Correct Answer: A) Verify the client’s identity with two identifiers
Rationale: Ensuring the right client prevents transfusion errors, a critical safety step before
checking blood type or starting the infusion.
Question 11
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen saturation of 88%.
What should the nurse do?
A) Increase oxygen to 4 L/min
B) Encourage deep breathing exercises
C) Administer a bronchodilator
D) Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B) Encourage deep breathing exercises
Rationale: An SpO2 of 88% is typical for COPD clients; the priority is to improve ventilation
non-invasively before escalating oxygen or notifying the provider.
Question 12
A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected peptic ulcer. Which finding should the nurse
expect?
A) Bright red stools
B) Black, tarry stools
C) Clay-colored stools
D) Foul-smelling diarrhea
, Correct Answer: B) Black, tarry stools
Rationale: Black, tarry stools (melena) indicate upper GI bleeding, common in peptic ulcers due
to digested blood. Bright red blood suggests lower GI bleeding.
Question 13
A 3-year-old is prescribed amoxicillin for an ear infection. The parent asks, “How do I give
this?” What is the nurse’s best response?
A) “Mix it with juice to improve the taste.”
B) “Give it with food to prevent stomach upset.”
C) “Administer it on an empty stomach.”
D) “Shake the bottle well before each dose.”
Correct Answer: D) “Shake the bottle well before each dose.”
Rationale: Amoxicillin suspension requires shaking to ensure even distribution of the
medication, a critical step for accurate dosing in pediatric clients.
Question 14
A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse
monitor?
A) Prothrombin time (PT)
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C) International normalized ratio (INR)
D) Platelet count
Correct Answer: B) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale: aPTT monitors heparin’s anticoagulant effect, with a therapeutic range typically 1.5-
2.5 times the baseline. PT/INR is for warfarin.
Question 15
A client with end-stage renal disease is on hemodialysis. Which dietary restriction should the
nurse reinforce?
A) Low-carbohydrate diet
B) High-protein intake
C) Potassium-rich foods
D) Calcium supplements
Correct Answer: C) Potassium-rich foods
Rationale: Potassium restriction is critical in renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys
cannot excrete excess potassium effectively.
Question 16
A nurse is planning care for a client with a new diagnosis of depression. Which intervention is
the priority?
A) Encouraging group therapy attendance
B) Assessing for suicidal ideation
C) Teaching coping strategies
D) Administering an antidepressant
Correct Answer: B) Assessing for suicidal ideation
Rationale: Safety is the priority; assessing suicide risk ensures immediate intervention if needed,
