WGU D115 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT ACTUAL EXAM 2025/2026 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED CORRECT SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES|| 100% GUARANTEED PASS <BRAND NEW VERSION>

WGU D115 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT ACTUAL EXAM 2025/2026 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED CORRECT SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES|| 100% GUARANTEED PASS &lt;BRAND NEW VERSION&gt; 1. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? Klinefelter syndrome Down syndrome Cri du chat syndrome Turner syndrome - ANSWER Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry. 2. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? Mothers cannot pass X-linked genes to their sons. Females are hemizygous for the X chromosome. The disease can be transmitted through female carriers. These diseases need only one copy of the gene in females. - ANSWER The disease can be transmitted through female carriers. Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out. 3. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? Relative Attributable Contingency Causal - ANSWER Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease. 4. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? Direct observation Chromosomal testing Relative risks Liability thresholds - ANSWER Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. 5. Imprinted, activated, mutated, altered - ANSWER The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair. 6. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing? The circulatory system cannot adequately perfuse tissues. The underlying chronic illness exists. The complement is deficient. The number of mast cells is insufficient. - ANSWER The underlying chronic illness exists. A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness. 7. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? B lymphocytes Eosinophils Neutrophils T lymphocytes - ANSWER Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites. 8. What Phagocytes bacteria? eosinophils macrophages perforin - ANSWER Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria. 9. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? cytotoxic T helper T cells phagocytic - ANSWER Helper T cells 10. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the antigen? Foreignness Quantity Size Complexity - ANSWER Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign. 11. Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? Prevent infection of the injured tissue Create immunity against subsequent tissue injury Provide specific responses toward antigens Lyse cell membranes of microorganisms - ANSWER Prevent infection of the injured tissue The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the body can heal. 12. Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when considering white blood cell differentials? Monocytes Neutrophils Basophils Eosinophils - ANSWER Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response. 13. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? Active-acquired immunity Passive-acquired immunity Active-innate immunity Passive-innate immunity - ANSWER Active-acquired immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine. 14. Which two processes are involved in platelet activation? Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) inactivation Aggregation Adhesion - ANSWER Platelet activation involves three linked processes: (1) adhesion, (2) activation, and (3) aggregation. Platelet activation stimuli include epinephrine, thrombin, and collagen. 15. Select four common causes of anemia from the list below. Increased red cell destruction Chronic blood loss Severe bleeding Impaired erythrocyte production Blood transfusion - ANSWER Impaired production of erythrocytes, increased red cell destruction, severe bleeding, and chronic blood loss can cause anemia. 16. explain why the nurse practitioner should ask the patient about her paresthesias and ataxia. - ANSWER Without the presence of intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 will not be absorbed effectively from the gastrointestinal tract. 17. Describe what causes pernicious anemia. - ANSWER Pernicious anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which is often associated with the end stage of type A chronic atrophic (autoimmune) gastritis. Autoimmune gastritis impairs the production of IF, which is required for vitamin B12 uptake from the gut. 18. Select three possible causes of lymphadenopathy from the options below. Inflammatory condition Lipid storage disease Neoplastic disease Cardiac disease 19. Peripheral vascular dysfunction - ANSWER There are multiple causes of lymphadenopathy. It may be caused by neoplastic disease, so all lymphadenopathies must be closely followed and evaluated. Lymphadenopathy may also be caused by an immunologic or inflammatory condition and by lipid storage disease; this type of lymphadenopathy is usually widespread, including the liver and spleen. 20. What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA) in children during the first few years of life? Dietary insufficiencies Absorption problems Blood loss Increased iron requirement - ANSWER Insufficient dietary iron is the most common cause of IDA in children during the first few years of life. 21. Which stressor triggers sickling? Increased plasma volume Increased oxygen tension of the blood Decreased plasma osmolality Low temperature - ANSWER Low temperature causes vasoconstriction, slowing blood flow, leading to RBC deoxygenation, which triggers sickling. 22. Which statement is true regarding congenital heart disease? Deficiency of folic acid has been associated with congenital birth defects. The underlying cause of congenital heart disease is known in 30% of cases. Congenital heart disease is the second leading cause of death in infants during the first year of life. Maternal use of drugs during pregnancy has not been shown to increase congenital heart disease. - ANSWER Congenital heart disease is the leading cause of death, excluding prematurity, in infants during the first year of life. 23. What is kawasaki disease - ANSWER which is an acute, usually self limiting systemic vasculitis that may have serious complications if not recognized and managed. The actual etiology of this disorder is not clear, but there is likely a genetic component, and current hypotheses are focused on immunologic responses to an infectious, toxic, or antigenic substance as the etiology for Kawasaki disease. During the acute phase, small capillaries, arterioles, and venules in the heart become inflamed. During the subacute state, inflammation spreads to larger blood vessels like the coronary arteries, and aneurysms may develop. During the convalescent stage, the medium sized arteries begin to heal; however, the granulation process may cause coronary artery thickening with increased risk for coronary thrombosis. After the convalescent stage, inflammation decreases, but there is potential for scarring of the affected vessels, calcification, and the development of vessel stenosis. 24. Treatment for kawasaki in children - ANSWER treated with oral aspirin therapy until the inflammation is resolved. Intravenous administration of immunoglobulin is also used to manage the acute inflammatory response. 25. Prognosis for kawasaki in kids - ANSWER Treatment of Kawasaki disease with aspirin and intravenous immunoglobulin during the acute phase has decreased the morbidity and reduced the incidence of coronary abnormalities, and most children like this patient completely recover from Kawasaki disease. However, there is the possibility of coronary thrombosis. A female patient has been diagnosed with an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). Which self-care measure that is specific to this type of infection should the healthcare provider teach the patient? Drink at least eight glasses of water a day Take medication if you have a fever Rest as much as possible in the few days after the start of the infection Wipe from front to back after using the bathroom - ANSWER Wiping front to back helps prevent the spread of e. coli into the urinary meatus. E. coli is normally colonized in the bowel and is the most common pathogen in UTIs. 26. What is needed for osteoclast actiation - ANSWER RANKL 27. What leads to primary osteoporosis - ANSWER alterations in RANKL/OPG system lead to dysregulation 28. Type IX collagen does what - ANSWER The glue that holds together the type two collagen acaffold of articular cartliage 29. osteosarcoma looks like what - ANSWER most common malignant primary bone tumor. Has a moth eaten pattern of bone destruction. 30. Giant cells in myelogenic tumors affect what gender more often - ANSWER females 31. what is the hallmark of the OA process - ANSWER Loss of proteoglycans from the articular cartilage 32. what is chronic fatigue syndrome - ANSWER (Myalgic encephalomyelitis)- a debilitating and complex disorder characterized by profound fatigue, musculoskeletal pain, cognitive impairment, unrefreshing sleep, impaired neurologic energy production, and immune impairments. 33. what layer of the skin has langerhans-cells with dendritic processes and immune function - ANSWER epidermis 34. what is a vesicle - ANSWER elevated, superficial, filled with serous fluid, less than 1cm. Ex-herpes, varicella 35. what is a bulla - ANSWER vesicle greater than 1cm- Ex- blister 36. what are telangictasias - ANSWER fine, irregular red lines produced by capillary dilation 37. Which pathogen is found on mucous membranes, on the skin, in the gastrointestinal tract, and in the vagina? Candida albicans Staphylococcus aureus Group A Streptococcus pyogenes Tinea pedis - ANSWER Candida albicans is a yeast pathogen found commonly in the mouth, on the skin, in the GI tract, and in the vagina.