TEST BANK for Dulcan's Textbook of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry 3rd Edition ISBN 9781615373277 | Complete Guide A+

TEST BANK for Dulcan's Textbook of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry, 3rd Edition ISBN 978-1-61537-327-7 Verified Answers From Publisher Contents Questions C H A P T E R 1 Assessing Infants and Toddlers 1 C H A P T E R 2 Assessing the Preschool-Age Child 2 C H A P T E R 3 Assessing the Elementary School–Age Child 4 C H A P T E R 4 Assessing Adolescents 5 C H A P T E R 5 Classification of Psychiatric Disorders 7 C H A P T E R 6 The Process of Assessment and Diagnosis 9 C H A P T E R 7 Diagnostic Interviews 11 C H A P T E R 8 Rating Scales 13 C H A P T E R 9 Pediatric Evaluation and Laboratory Testing 14 C H A P T E R 1 0 Neurological Examination, Electroencephalography, and Neuroimaging 16 C H A P T E R 1 1 Psychological and Neuropsychological Testing 18 C H A P T E R 1 2 Intellectual Disability (Mental Retardation) 20 C H A P T E R 1 3 Autism Spectrum Disorders 22 C H A P T E R 1 4 Developmental Disorders of Learning, Communication, and Motor Skills 23 C H A P T E R 1 5 Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder 25 C H A P T E R 1 6 Oppositional Defiant Disorder and Conduct Disorder 27 C H A P T E R 1 7 Substance Abuse and Addictions 28 C H A P T E R 1 8 Depression and Dysthymia 30 C H A P T E R 1 9 Bipolar Disorder 32 C H A P T E R 2 0 Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Specific Phobia, Panic Disorder, Social Phobia, and Selective Mutism 34 C H A P T E R 2 1 Separation Anxiety Disorder and School Refusal 36 C H A P T E R 2 2 Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 38 C H A P T E R 2 3 Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder 39 C H A P T E R 2 4 Early-Onset Schizophrenia 41 C H A P T E R 2 5 Obesity 43 C H A P T E R 2 6 Anorexia Nervosa and Bulimia Nervosa 45 C H A P T E R 2 7 Tic Disorders 47 C H A P T E R 2 8 Elimination Disorders 48 C H A P T E R 2 9 Sleep Disorders 49 C H A P T E R 3 0 Evidence-Based Practices 51 C H A P T E R 3 1 Child Abuse and Neglect 52 C H A P T E R 3 2 HIV and AIDS 53 C H A P T E R 3 3 Bereavement and Traumatic Grief 54 C H A P T E R 3 4 Ethnic, Cultural, and Religious Issues 56 C H A P T E R 3 5 Youth Suicide 58 C H A P T E R 3 6 Gender Identity and Sexual Orientation 60 C H A P T E R 3 7 Aggression and Violence 62 C H A P T E R 3 8 Genetics: Fundamentals Relevant to Child and Adolescent Psychiatry 64 C H A P T E R 3 9 Psychiatric Emergencies 66 C H A P T E R 4 0 Family Transitions: Challenges and Resilience 68 C H A P T E R 4 1 Psychiatric Aspects of Chronic Physical Disorders 70 C H A P T E R 4 2 Children of Parents With Psychiatric and Substance Abuse Disorders 72 6 | C H A P T E R 4 3 Legal and Ethical Issues 74 C H A P T E R 4 4 Telepsychiatry 75 C H A P T E R 4 5 Principles of Psychopharmacology 76 C H A P T E R 4 6 Medications Used for Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder 78 C H A P T E R 4 7 Antidepressants 79 C H A P T E R 4 8 Mood Stabilizers 81 C H A P T E R 4 9 Antipsychotic Medications 83 C H A P T E R 5 0 Alpha-Adrenergics, Beta-Blockers, Benzodiazepines, Buspirone, and Desmopressin 85 C H A P T E R 5 1 Medications Used for Sleep 87 C H A P T E R 5 2 Electroconvulsive Therapy, Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation, and Deep Brain Stimulation 88 C H A P T E R 5 3 Individual Psychotherapy 90 C H A P T E R 5 4 Parent Counseling, Psychoeducation, and Parent Support Groups 91 C H A P T E R 5 5 Behavioral Parent Training 93 C H A P T E R 5 6 Family Therapy 94 C H A P T E R 5 7 Interpersonal Psychotherapy for Depressed Adolescents 95 C H A P T E R 5 8 Cognitive-Behavioral Treatment for Anxiety Disorders 97 C H A P T E R 5 9 Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy for Depression 99 C H A P T E R 6 0 Motivational Interviewing 101 C H A P T E R 6 1 Systems of Care, Wraparound Services, and Home-Based Services 102 C H A P T E R 6 2 Milieu Treatment: Inpatient, Partial Hospitalization, and Residential Programs 104 C H A P T E R 6 3 School-Based Interventions 106 C H A P T E R 6 4 Collaborating With Primary Care 108 C H A P T E R 6 5 Juvenile Justice 110 Answer Guide C H A P T E R 1 Assessing Infants and Toddlers 111 C H A P T E R 2 Assessing the Preschool-Age Child 114 C H A P T E R 3 Assessing the Elementary School–Age Child 118 C H A P T E R 4 Assessing Adolescents 121 C H A P T E R 5 Classification of Psychiatric Disorders 125 C H A P T E R 6 The Process of Assessment and Diagnosis 128 8 | C H A P T E R 7 Diagnostic Interviews 131 C H A P T E R 8 Rating Scales 134 C H A P T E R 9 Pediatric Evaluation and Laboratory Testing 138 C H A P T E R 1 0 Neurological Examination, Electroencephalography, and Neuroimaging 143 C H A P T E R 1 1 Psychological and Neuropsychological Testing 146 C H A P T E R 1 2 Intellectual Disability (Mental Retardation) 149 C H A P T E R 1 3 Autism Spectrum Disorders 153 C H A P T E R 1 4 Developmental Disorders of Learning, Communication, and Motor Skills 157 C H A P T E R 1 5 Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder 160 C H A P T E R 1 6 Oppositional Defiant Disorder and Conduct Disorder 165 C H A P T E R 1 7 Substance Abuse and Addictions 168 C H A P T E R 1 8 Depression and Dysthymia 171 C H A P T E R 1 9 Bipolar Disorder 175 C H A P T E R 2 0 Generalized Anxiety Disorder, Specific Phobia, Panic Disorder, Social Phobia, and Selective Mutism 178 C H A P T E R 2 1 Separation Anxiety Disorder and School Refusal 183 C H A P T E R 2 2 Posttraumatic Stress Disorder 187 C H A P T E R 2 3 Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder 190 C H A P T E R 2 4 Early-Onset Schizophrenia 194 C H A P T E R 2 5 Obesity 199 C H A P T E R 2 6 Anorexia Nervosa and Bulimia Nervosa 202 C H A P T E R 2 7 Tic Disorders 205 C H A P T E R 2 8 Elimination Disorders 209 C H A P T E R 2 9 Sleep Disorders 212 C H A P T E R 3 0 Evidence-Based Practices 216 C H A P T E R 3 1 Child Abuse and Neglect 219 C H A P T E R 3 2 HIV and AIDS 222 C H A P T E R 3 3 Bereavement and Traumatic Grief 225 C H A P T E R 3 4 Ethnic, Cultural, and Religious Issues 229 C H A P T E R 3 5 Youth Suicide 232 C H A P T E R 3 6 Gender Identity and Sexual Orientation 236 10 | C H A P T E R 3 7 Aggression and Violence 239 C H A P T E R 3 8 Genetics: Fundamentals Relevant to Child and Adolescent Psychiatry 242 C H A P T E R 3 9 Psychiatric Emergencies 245 C H A P T E R 4 0 Family Transitions: Challenges and Resilience 248 C H A P T E R 4 1 Psychiatric Aspects of Chronic Physical Disorders 251 C H A P T E R 4 2 Children of Parents With Psychiatric and Substance Abuse Disorders 255 C H A P T E R 4 3 Legal and Ethical Issues 258 C H A P T E R 4 4 Telepsychiatry 261 C H A P T E R 4 5 Principles of Psychopharmacology 264 C H A P T E R 4 6 Medications Used for Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder 267 C H A P T E R 4 7 Antidepressants 271 C H A P T E R 4 8 Mood Stabilizers 274 C H A P T E R 4 9 Antipsychotic Medications 278 C H A P T E R 5 0 Alpha-Adrenergics, Beta-Blockers, Benzodiazepines, Buspirone, and Desmopressin 281 C H A P T E R 5 1 Medications Used for Sleep 284 C H A P T E R 5 2 Electroconvulsive Therapy, Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation, and Deep Brain Stimulation 287 C H A P T E R 5 3 Individual Psychotherapy 291 C H A P T E R 5 4 Parent Counseling, Psychoeducation, and Parent Support Groups 294 C H A P T E R 5 5 Behavioral Parent Training 297 C H A P T E R 5 6 Family Therapy 300 C H A P T E R 5 7 Interpersonal Psychotherapy for Depressed Adolescents 304 C H A P T E R 5 8 Cognitive-Behavioral Treatment for Anxiety Disorders 307 C H A P T E R 5 9 Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy for Depression 312 C H A P T E R 6 0 Motivational Interviewing 315 C H A P T E R 6 1 Systems of Care, Wraparound Services, and Home-Based Services 318 C H A P T E R 6 2 Milieu Treatment: Inpatient, Partial Hospitalization, and Residential Programs 322 C H A P T E R 6 3 School-Based Interventions 326 C H A P T E R 6 4 Collaborating With Primary Care 329 C H A P T E R 6 5 Juvenile Justice 332 12 | Preface The purpose of this study guide is to provide individuals who have purchased Dulcan’s Textbook of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry an opportunity to evaluate their understanding of the material contained in the textbook. Whenever possible, the selected questions emphasize the major points of each chapter. In addition, every effort is made to select those questions of most relevance to psychiatrists who see patients in a variety of clinical prac- tice settings. We encourage the readers of the textbook to answer the questions after reading each chapter. The format for the questions is similar to what candidates would expect to encounter when taking Part I of the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology initial certification examination or the maintenance-of-certification examination in psychiatry that is required every 10 years. At the end of the study guide, the questions are repeated along with detailed answers. The answer section includes an explanation of the correct response for each question, as well as an explanation, in most cases, for why the other responses were incorrect. An online version is available in addition to the printed study guide. Psychiatrists who wish to earn continuing medical education credits may purchase the online version and obtain CME credit by completing it. We hope you will find the study guide a useful addition to Dulcan’s Textbook of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry. Our goal is to have an assessment instrument that is helpful for your understanding of the material and for clari- fication of important concepts. Although the questions are reviewed numerous times, both by the authors and by editors at American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc., occasionally an incorrect response may be included. If this is the case, we would appreciate your notifying the publisher of the error so it can be corrected in the online ver- sion of the self-assessment examination. If you have other suggestions concerning this study guide, please e- mail Dr. Hales at . Best of luck with your self-examination. Hong Shen, M.D. Robert E. Hales, M.D., M.B.A. Narriman C. Shahrokh C h a p t e r 1 Assessing Infants and Toddlers Select the single best response for each question. 1.1 Infant psychiatry focuses on which of the following age groups? A. From birth to first birthday. B. From birth through age 3 years. C. From birth to preschool years. D. From conception to age 3 years. E. From conception to preschool years. 1.2 Which of the following is the strongest outcome predictor of early childhood development? A. Presence or absence of pregnancy complications. B. Birth weight. C. Child’s temperament. D. Parental relationship. E. Primary caregiving relationship. 1.3 Which of the following assessment or diagnostic tools uses the DSM-IV multiaxial system? A. Diagnostic Criteria: Zero to Three, Revised (DC:0–3R). B. Child Behavior Checklist 1½–5. C. Infant-Toddler Social and Emotional Assessment (ITSEA). D. Ages and Stages Questionnaires: Social-Emotional. E. None of the above. 1.4 Which of the following is not considered a key element of the infant/toddler assessment? A. History of presenting problem. B. Medical history. C. Developmental history. D. IQ. E. Family history. 1.5 Which of the following is the only diagnostic interview with published data to support its reliability for as- sessing infants and toddlers? A. Preschool Age Psychiatric Assessment (PAPA). B. Diagnostic Infant Preschool Structured Interview. C. Crowell procedure. 14 | D. Beck Depression Inventory. E. Parenting Stress Index. C h a p t e r 2 Assessing the Preschool-Age Child Select the single best response for each question. 2.1 The significant developmental differences between preschool- and school-age children require a tailored approach to obtaining a history and mental status exam. Which of the following principles should be kept in mind when evaluating a preschool-age child? A. The most meaningful evaluation occurs when the child is evaluated without the primary caregiver. B. The mental status examination should be conducted in the context of play. C. The preschooler should be evaluated in one session to avoid conflicting results. D. It is desirable to include only the primary caregiver when evaluating the child. E. All of the above. 2.2 The Washington University School of Medicine Infant/Preschool Mental Health (WUSM IPMH) clinic uses a standardized format for evaluating preschool-age children. Which of the following statements correctly describes this evaluation? A. The assessment is conducted in one 3-hour session. B. Free play is observed with the primary caregiver. C. A semistructured observation with secondary caregivers is included. D. Emotional, psychological, family, and developmental history is obtained only from the mother. E. None of the above. 2.3 Which of the following actions should be taken by parents to prepare their preschooler for the play evalua- tion? A. Parents should provide honest information to the child about the purpose of the evaluation. B. Parents should not disclose to their child that they have already met with the examiner. C. Parents should avoid discussing with the child that the examination will involve play. D. It is best to inform the child about the examination over several days to a week so he/she may ask questions. E. Parents should not prepare their child for the examination. 2.4 Which of the following statements regarding conduct of the free-play assessment with the preschooler is true? A. A brief separation between the parent and child midway through the free-play session is useful. B. The clinician should avoid disclosing to the child what was learned about his or her problems from the meeting with the parents. C. When the parent asks questions of the therapist during the play session, the therapist should freely answer the questions in order to reduce the parents’ anxiety. 16 | D. The examiner should not respond to the child’s bids to engage in play. E. All of the above. 2.5 Several standardized semistructured interviews may be useful in the dyadic assessment of parent and child. Which of the following are characteristics of the Parent-Child Early Relational Assessment (PCERA)? A. The parent blows bubbles to elicit affect from the child. B. Tasks of escalating difficulty are performed by the child and parent and videotaped for further re- view. C. The parent and child perform a structured task in which block designs are made from sample cards. D. None of the above. E. All of the above. C h a p t e r 3 Assessing the Elementary School–Age Child Select the single best response for each question. 3.1 The key developmental milestones for the school-age child are related to A. Separation and individuation. B. Initiation and rapprochement. C. Object constancy and individual consolidation. D. Peer identity and social identity formation. E. Intimacy and generativity. 3.2 Which of the following is key to a successful evaluation? A. Seeing the child first. B. Seeing the parent(s) first. C. Seeing the child and parent(s) together. D. Seeing the referral professional first. E. Establishing a collaborative relationship between the clinician and the child and his or her family. 3.3 Key procedural information that should be covered in the first evaluation session includes all of the following except A. Office/departmental procedures. B. Plan/process of the evaluation. C. Communication with school. D. Confidentiality. E. Safety plans. 3.4 For the clinician, appropriate steps in the evaluation of a child whose parents are divorced include all of the following except A. Attempt to include both parents in gathering information. B. Agree to complete a custody evaluation. C. Clarify which parent has primary custody and request a copy of the custody agreement. D. Clarify health insurance responsibility. E. Clarify the role of the clinician. 3.5 Common presenting problems in school-age children include all of the following except 18 | A. Sexualized behavior. B. Academic difficulties. C. Peer difficulties. D. School refusal. E. Social anxiety. C h a p t e r 4 Assessing Adolescents Select the single best response for each question. 4.1 Which of the following statements concerning the assessment of adolescents is true? A. Because mothers and fathers may have divergent views about the adolescent’s problems, only one parent should be interviewed. B. Involve as few informants as possible in collecting information to minimize conflicting opinions. C. Understanding how the adolescent was referred for treatment is not important. D. Prior medical records from primary care physicians should be obtained as part of the assessment. E. Data from rating scales or psychological testing are rarely helpful in establishing the correct diagno- sis. 4.2 In the initial assessment of an adolescent, which of the following strategies is usually most productive? A. Interview one parent, then the adolescent, then the other parent. B. Interview the adolescent alone first, then the parent or parents. C. Interview both parents, then the adolescent. D. Interview the parents together with the adolescent. E. None of the above. 4.3 What information obtained from adolescents should be shared with the parents? A. All details obtained from the adolescent should be shared with the parents. B. No information obtained from the adolescent should be shared with the parents. C. Safety issues involving the adolescent, such as suicidal behavior, should be shared with the par- ents. D. None of the above. E. All of the above. 4.4 An evidence-based approach that has been successfully used for interviewing adolescents is A. Psychodynamic interviewing. B. Dialectical behavioral interviewing. C. Cognitive-behavioral interviewing. D. Interpersonal interviewing. E. Motivational interviewing. 4.5 Goals for the initial parent interview include all of the following except A. Data collection. 20 | B. Sharing differential diagnostic possibilities. C. Understanding the parent’s point of view. D. Establishing a relationship with the parents. E. None of the above. 4.6 A respondent-based interview that is highly structured and designed to be administered by trained lay in- terviewers is A. Diagnostic Interview Schedule for Children, Version IV (DISC-IV). B. Schedule for Affective Disorders and Schizophrenia for School-Age Children (K-SADS). C. Child Adolescent Psychiatric Assessment (CAPA). D. Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL). E. Behavior Assessment System for Children (BASC). C h a p t e r 5 Classification of Psychiatric Disorders Select the single best response for each question. 5.1 DSM-I (American Psychiatric Association 1952) categories relating specifically to childhood or adoles- cence included all of the following except A. Chronic brain syndrome associated with birth trauma. B. Schizophrenia reaction, childhood type. C. Special symptom reactions such as learning disturbance, enuresis, and somnambulism. D. Adjustment reactions. E. Hyperkinetic reaction of childhood. 5.2 All of the following statements regarding DSM-II (American Psychiatric Association 1968) are correct ex- cept A. It was intended to coincide with the International Classification of Diseases, 8th Revision (ICD-8). B. The developers tried to avoid terms that implied either the nature of a disorder or its cause. C. It reflected the growing importance of biological theories and research findings. D. It emphasized psychoanalytic theory. E. Descriptive phenomenology assumed a larger role. 5.3 All of the following statements regarding DSM-III (American Psychiatric Association 1980) are correct ex- cept A. It was highly controversial when introduced. B. Assumed etiology was included for most disorders. C. It was modeled on the Feighner criteria. D. It provided specific phenomenological diagnostic criteria for each disorder, in contrast to the global clinical impression of DSM-IV (American Psychiatric Association 1994). E. Each diagnosis had inclusion and exclusion criteria, and a five-part multiaxial system was intro- duced. 5.4 All of the following statements about DSM-IV (American Psychiatric Association 1994) are correct except A. It was a reconceptualization of its predecessor. B. There was greater coordination and agreement with the ICD development process. C. For most DSM-IV disorders, a single criteria set was provided that applies to children, adolescents, and adults. 22 | D. A number of disorders were moved from Axis II to Axis I, and only personality disorders and mental retardation remained on Axis II. E. The category “attention-deficit and disruptive behavior disorders” replaced the DSM-III-R (American Psychiatric Association 1987) category of disruptive behavior disorders. 5.5 Other diagnostic systems have been developed for populations of patients or professionals who have not been well served by either the DSM or ICD models. All of the following statements are correct except A. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Primary Care (DSM-PC) was developed collaboratively by the American Academy of Pediatrics and the American Psychiatric Association. B. DSM-PC was designed to be used by pediatricians and faculty physicians to classify emotional and behavioral problems. C. DSM-PC includes a simplified single cluster approach. D. The Diagnostic Classification on Infancy and Early Childhood (DC:0–3) was revised in 2005. E. The goals of DC:0–3 were to increase the recognition of mental health and developmental chal- lenges in young children. 24 | C h a p t e r 6 The Process of Assessment and Diagnosis Select the single best response for each question. 6.1 Child assessment differs from adult assessment in a number of ways. Which of the following describes aspects of the child assessment that are different from the adult assessment? A. Multiple sources constitute the field for data collection with children. B. Child assessments frequently require information from the school. C. For younger children, verbal communication is much less important than play. D. Children rarely seek out an evaluation. E. All of the above. 6.2 In conducting the parent interview, clinicians should not A. Request information about the child’s interests, activities, or strengths. B. Ask what preparation the parents have given the child for the evaluation. C. Ask parents for their understanding of the problem. D. Explain that the evaluation will invariably lead to treatment by the clinician. E. Discuss confidentiality of sessions between the child and the clinician. 6.3 Which of the following is the most important source of an outside report the clinicians should obtain (with permission) when assessing a child? A. Friends. B. Teachers. C. Siblings. D. Noncaregiving relatives. E. Group activities. 6.4 In constructing a case formulation, Ebert et al. (2000) suggested that the clinician examine child and fami- ly factors along a time axis and categorize them as predisposing, precipitating, perpetuating, or prognos- tic. According to this approach, parents going through a divorce would be considered what type of factor? A. Predisposing. B. Precipitating. C. Perpetuating. D. Prognostic. E. None of the above. 6.5 The major purpose of the parental feedback interview is A. To develop a concrete treatment plan to help their child. B. To gather additional information about the relationship between the child and parents. C. To test hypotheses concerning the case formulation. D. To inform the parents and child what has been found and what the clinician would recommend to address the issues that led to the assessment. E. To provide referral sources to the parents for either further assessment or treatment of their child. 26 | C h a p t e r 7 Diagnostic Interviews Select the single best response for each question. 7.1 The process of making a psychiatric diagnosis is fraught with numerous potential biases. Which of the following clinician practices is least likely to result in a biased diagnosis? A. Making diagnoses before all relevant information is collected. B. Collecting information selectively. C. Neglecting to be systematic in collecting and/or organizing information. D. Preventing the clinician’s particular expertise from influencing diagnosis assignment. E. Assuming correlation between symptoms and illness. 7.2 Various diagnostic tools have been developed to enhance the reliability of the information gathered and the diag-nosis assignment. Which of the following statements is false? A. Clinicians and researchers commonly use diagnostic interviews and questionnaires. B. Patients, parents, and teachers usually complete questionnaires. C. Structured diagnostic interviews are primarily used by clinicians in daily clinical practice. D. The instruments vary as to whether they are administered by clinicians or trained nonclinical inter- viewers. E. Structured interviews specific for children and adolescents have been developed. 7.3 The term face validity refers to A. How well a category as defined appears to describe a recognized illness. B. How well the category predicts a pertinent aspect of care, such as treatment needs or prognosis. C. Whether the category has meaning in terms of what it is designed to describe. D. How often different interviews assign the same diagnosis. E. How consistently respondents report the same symptoms over time. 7.4 “The percentage of individuals in a sample who do not have the disorder and are accurately identified by the interview as not having the disorder” defines which of the following terms? A. Sensitivity. B. Specificity. C. Predictive value positive. D. Predictive value negative. E. None of the above. 7.5 Interviews are usually described as either structured or semistructured, depending on how much freedom the interviewer has to ask questions and interpret the responses. Semistructured interviews are designed for clinical research and allow the interviewer some leeway in wording questions and interpreting re- sponses. All of the following instruments are semistructured except A. Schedule for Affective Disorders and Schizophrenia for School-Aged Children—Present and Life- time (K-SADS-PL). B. Washington University Schedule for Affective Disorders and Schizophrenia for School-Aged Chil- dren (WASH-U-KSADS). C. Schedule for Affective Disorders and Schizophrenia for School-Aged Children—Epidemiological (K-SADS-E). D. Anxiety Disorders Interview Schedule for DSM-IV: Child and Parent Version (ADIS-CP). E. National Institute of Mental Health Diagnostic Interview Schedule for Children Version IV (NIMH DISC-IV). 28 | C h a p t e r 8 Rating Scales Select the single best response for each question. 8.1 Which of the following terms is used to describe whether a scale is stable over time? A. Internal reliability. B. Interrater reliability. C. Test-retest reliability. D. Reliability. E. Psychometric properties. 8.2 Which of the following types of concurrent validity is defined as the extent of correlation of related varia- bles? A. Content validity. B. Face validity. C. Criterion validity. D. Discriminative validity. E. Convergent validity. 8.3 A “broad-band” rating scale that includes multiple versions for different reporters and age groups and that can be scored using factors that approximate DSM-IV-TR (American Psychiatric Association 2000) diag- nostic criteria is A. The Behavior Assessment System for Children, 2nd Edition (BASC-2). B. The Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL). C. The Child Symptom Inventories (CSI). D. The Eyberg Child Behavior Inventory (ECBI). E. The Sutter-Eyberg Student Behavior Inventory-Revised (SESBI-R). 8.4 Of the following rating scales, which assesses the same aspects of depression with adolescents that it assesses with adults and additionally discriminates depressed teens from those with anxiety and conduct disorders? A. Children’s Depression Inventory (CDI). B. Children’s Depression Rating Scale-Revised (CDRS-R). C. Reynolds Adolescent Depression Scale (RADS). D. Beck Depression Inventory-II (BDI-II). E. Reynolds Child Depression Scale (RCDS). 8.5 A friend contacts you and expresses concern that her 8-year-old son may have atten- tion- deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). She asks if there is a good rating scale available at no cost that a parent can use. You tell her to search online for the following: A. Vanderbilt ADHD Parent Rating Scale (VADPRS). B. Conners’ Rating Scale–Revised (CRS-R). C. ADHD Rating Scale–IV (ADHD-RS-IV). D. Social Communication Questionnaire (SCQ). E. Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales, 2nd Edition (VABS-II). 30 | C h a p t e r 9 Pediatric Evaluation and Laboratory Testing Select the single best response for each question. 9.1 A comprehensive medical history, the use of collateral informants, and close collaboration with the pediat- ric provider are essential in the evaluation of children and adolescents who present with psychiatric and behavioral symptoms. All of the following statements are correct except A. The presence of regular pediatric visits, well-child visits, and immunizations as scheduled should be established. B. History gathering begins with the child’s delivery. C. A history of labor and delivery, including gestational age, Apgar scores, nature of delivery, and complications, should be reviewed. D. History gathering should include the family pedigree and family medical and psychiatric history. E. Family history of sudden cardiac death and hypercholesterolemia may need to be elicited. 9.2 Assessing a child’s development is an integral component of the overall medical evaluation. All of the fol- lowing statements are accurate except A. The Denver Development Screening Tool (DDST) is used for children up to 6 years of age. B. The medical history for the 6- to 11-year-old child focuses on growth, development, and skills ac- quisition. C. During the period between 6 and 11 years of age, the head grows rapidly. D. Adolescent physical development is characterized by physical growth and sexual development. E. The peak of growth in male adolescents comes 2–3 years later than that in females. 9.3 Which of the following syndromes has a recognizable behavioral phenotype? A. Fragile X syndrome. B. Prader-Willi syndrome. C. Angelman’s syndrome. D. Turner syndrome. E. All of the above. 9.4 All of the following baseline laboratory assessments should be obtained when children and adolescents present with behavioral symptoms whose history or physical findings suggest an organic etiology except A. Complete blood count. B. Renal function tests. C. Hepatic function tests. D. Thyroid function tests. E. Lipid profile. 9.5 Which of the following statements regarding cardiac risk and assessment of children and adolescents is false? A. Cardiac evaluation and testing are suggested if positive for a family or medical history of sudden cardiac death, symptoms of palpitation, fainting, chest pain, exercise intolerance, arrhythmia, syn- cope, and hypertension. B. Electrocardiograms (ECGs) are often used in psychiatric practice for monitoring the effects of drugs known to adversely affect cardiac function. C. An ECG should be obtained prior to initiation of certain psychotropic medications. D. Lithium can potentially cause benign reversible T-wave changes and impair SA nodal function. E. Current recommendations advocate routine ECGs before initiating stimulant treatment. 32 | C h a p t e r 1 0 Neurological Examination, Electroencephalography, and Neuroimaging Select the single best response for each question. 10.1 Which of the following are characteristic of upper motor neuron lesions? A. Bilateral distribution. B. Flaccid paralysis. C. Hypotonia. D. Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes. E. Babinski reflex positive. 10.2 Which part of the neurological examination is the least objective in the nonverbal and/or young patient? A. Motor examination. B. Sensory examination. C. Coordination assessment. D. Gait examination. E. Cranial nerve assessment. 10.3 Which part of the neurological examination may be accomplished by holding toys so that the patient has to reach across the midline to reach them? A. Motor examination. B. Sensory examination. C. Coordination assessment. D. Gait assessment. E. Cranial nerve assessment. 10.4 Which of the following EEG rhythms are the predominant pattern when children are awake with their eyes closed? A. Delta. B. Theta. C. Alpha. D. Beta. E. None of the above. 10.5 Which of the following EEG findings commonly reflect primary generalized epilepsy and may be elicited by hyper-ventilation or photic stimulation? A. Spike and slow-wave discharges. B. Sharp and slow-wave complex discharges. C. Focal epileptiform discharges. D. Periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges. E. Rhythmic slowing. 34 | C h a p t e r 1 1 Psychological and Neuropsychological Testing Select the single best response for each question. 11.1 According to the American Education Research Association, clinically relevant requirements for the ethical administration and interpretation of tests include all of the following except A. Test publishers have a number of responsibilities. B. Test users must be qualified in the area in which they are conducting an assessment. C. Testing must be guided by the best interests of the patient. D. Decisions must be based on test data that are current. E. Tests must be ready for readministration within 1 year. 11.2 A psychological test must be appropriately constructed and standardized. Interpretation is based on some type of standardized score, which in turn is based on the standard deviation (SD), or dispersion, of test scores for the sample. Correct statements regarding the SD include all of the following except A. About 68% of scores fall within one standard deviation of the mean. B. 80% of scores fall within two standard deviations. C. For most tests, the mean of standardized scores is low. D. Some tests are constructed with a mean of 50. E. Some tests are constructed with a mean of 0. 11.3 Which of the following is the correct definition of reliability? A. The degree to which the test measures what it claims to measure. B. The degree to which the questions and tasks are representative of the universe of behavior the test was designed to sample. C. A test that, if repeated or if administered by another examiner, would yield approximately the same score. D. The extent to which a test estimates a person’s performance on some outcome measure or criteri- on. E. A theoretical, intangible quality or trait in which individuals differ. 11.4 All of the following are IQ tests except A. Stanford-Binet. B. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children. C. Differential Ability Scales. D. Bayley-III. E. Kaufman. 11.5 Assessment of intellectual deficiency (mental retardation) must include which of the following measures? A. The Iowa Tests of Basic Achievement. B. Standard Achievement Test. C. Woodcock-Johnson Tests of Achievement. D. Halstead-Reitan Test Battery. E. Test of adaptive functioning. 36 | C h a p t e r 1 2 Intellectual Disability (Mental Retardation) Select the single best response for each question. 12.1 In 1992, the American Association on Mental Retardation (AAMR), now the American Association on In- tellectual Disability and Developmental Disabilities (AAIDD), proposed a new classification system for in- tellectual disability based on intensity of supports needed as opposed to the traditional system of classifi- cation by IQ score. For the new proposed classification, where would someone be classified if he or she requires additional support to navigate through everyday situations? A. Intermittent support. B. Limited support. C. Extensive support. D. Pervasive support. E. None of the above. 12.2 Which of the following predisposing factors is associated with the highest percentage of cases of intellec- tual disability? A. Environmental influences. B. Pregnancy and perinatal complications. C. Acquired medical conditions. D. Heredity. E. Chromosomal changes and exposure to toxins during prenatal development. 12.3 Which of the following risk factors for intellectual disability of unknown etiology is the strongest predictor of disability? A. Lower level of maternal education. B. Children born to older women. C. Low birth weight. D. Males. E. Multiple births. 12.4 Which of the following genetic causes of intellectual disability is associated with a deletion at 22q11.2? A. Angelman syndrome. B. Williams syndrome. C. Prader-Willi syndrome. D. Velocardiofacial syndrome (VCFS). E. Rett syndrome. 12.5 Which of the following atypical antipsychotic medications has the most scientific evidence to support its use in treating children with extreme irritability, aggression, or self-injury in the setting of intellectual disa- bility? A. Aripiprazole. B. Olanzapine. C. Quetiapine. D. Risperidone. E. Ziprasidone. 38 | C h a p t e r 1 3 Autism Spectrum Disorders Select the single best response for each question. 13.1 In which of the following DSM editions did autism become an official and codified diagnosis? A. DSM-I. B. DSM-II. C. DSM-III. D. DSM-III-R. E. DSM-IV. 13.2 A DSM-IV-TR (American Psychiatric Association 2000) diagnosis of autism requires all of the following except A. Qualitative impairments in social interaction. B. Qualitative impairments in communication. C. Restricted repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior, interests, and activities. D. Delays or abnormal functioning in at least one of above areas prior to age 3 years. E. Low IQ. 13.3 Evaluation instruments designed for autism include all of the following except A. Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (CHAT). B. Autism Diagnostic Interview—Revised (ADI-R). C. Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule—Generic (ADOS-G). D. Childhood Autism Rating Scale (CARS). E. Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales (VABS). 13.4 DSM-IV-TR (American Psychiatric Association 2000) pervasive development disorders (PDDs) include all of the following except A. Asperger’s disorder. B. PDD not otherwise specified (NOS). C. Rett’s disorder. D. Childhood disintegrative disorder (CDD). E. Fragile X syndrome. 13.5 Based on a 2001 study funded by the National Academy of Sciences, recommended targets for educa- tional intervention in children with autism spectrum disorders include all of the following except A. Functional spontaneous communication. B. Social skills. C. Play skills. D. Cognitive development. E. Self-care skills. 40 | C h a p t e r 1 4 Developmental Disorders of Learning, Communication, and Motor Skills Select the single best response for each question. 14.1 Which of the following is the most common learning disorder? A. Expressive language disorder. B. Receptive language disorder. C. Disorder of written expression. D. Reading disorder. E. Mathematics disorder. 14.2 “The ability to use working memory to retain sounds and then words” defines which of the following basic -building blocks of reading? A. Phonological awareness. B. Rapid naming. C. Phonological memory. D. Word recognition. E. Spelling. 14.3 Which of the following core cognitive processes is required for adequate reading comprehension? A. Language skills. B. Listening comprehension. C. Working memory. D. Inference. E. All of the above. 14.4 Which of the following terms is used to describe problems that ensue when the brain fails to recognize and -interpret a sound? A. Phonological disorder. B. Auditory processing disorder (APD). C. Fluency disorder. D. Expressive language disorder. E. Oral expression disorder. 14.5 Which of the following statements concerning mathematics disability is true? A. Research in dyslexia lags behind dyscalculia. B. Several core deficits have been identified in the mathematics arena. C. The prevalence of a math disability is estimated to be 10%–12%. D. There is no evidence to support the heritability of math difficulties. E. Federal guidelines break down mathematics disorder into the ability to perform calculations and problem solving. 42 | C h a p t e r 1 5 Attention-Deficit/ Hyperactivity Disorder Select the single best response for each question. 15.1 All of the following are accurate statements regarding comorbidity with attention-deficit/hyperactivity dis- order (ADHD) except A. Both oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and conduct disorder are comorbidly present in at least 25% of children with ADHD. B. Learning and language disorders are comorbidly present in up to 25% of children with ADHD. C. Many children with ADHD have two or more comorbid disorders. D. Family studies suggest that ADHD with ODD/conduct disorder and ADHD alone are separate ge- netic subtypes. E. Compared with those with ADHD alone, those with comorbid anxiety are less likely to respond to psychosocial interventions. 15.2 All of the following statements concerning the etiology and risk factors of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) are correct except A. If a child has ADHD, there is a 10%–35% chance of first-degree relatives having the disorder. B. If a parent has ADHD, there is a 57% chance the child will develop ADHD. C. The rate of ADHD in biological relatives is 18% compared with 6% in the adopted relatives. D. About 50% of the variance in ADHD traits is found to be attributable to genetics. E. Nongenetic risk factors include perinatal stress, low birth weight, traumatic brain injury, and mater- nal smoking during pregnancy. 15.3 All of the following statements regarding the pathophysiology of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) are correct except A. Hippocampal volume is increased bilaterally in a large sample of children with ADHD relative to control subjects. B. Children with ADHD show larger volumes of the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC), anterior cingulate, and caudate regions compared with control subjects. C. Compared with children with ADHD, control subjects have increased activation in the prefrontal cortex (PFC) bilaterally when performing response inhibition tasks. D. The parents of ADHD children (who had ADHD themselves) show decreased activity in the fronto- striatal areas and anterior cingulate cortex (ACC). E. ADHD may be seen as a disorder of both frontostriatal and frontocerebellar circuitry. 15.4 Research findings concerning the course and prognosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) include all of the following except A. More than 60% of children with ADHD continue to suffer from the disorder during teenage years. B. At a 3-year follow-up, the NIMH Multimodal Treatment Study of ADHD (MTA) found that 20% of the sample no longer met criteria for ADHD. C. Follow-up studies in the adult population showed variable rates of ADHD depending on informants and presence or absence of comorbidity. D. Adults with a childhood history of ADHD show higher rates of antisocial behavior, injuries and acci- dents, and employment and marital difficulties. E. Adults with a childhood history of ADHD have higher rates of substance use disorders. 15.5 All of the following statements regarding attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) treatment are cor- rect except A. Pharmacological treatment of ADHD is the best-studied intervention in child and adolescent psychi- atry. B. Pharmacological intervention for ADHD is more effective than behavioral treatment alone. C. Comorbid anxiety has been found to predict a poorer response to behavioral treatment. D. According to recent American Academy of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry and Texas Children’s Medication Algorithm Project (CMAP) guidelines, U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)– approved agents should be the initial choice of medications. E. The long-acting agents have similar safety and efficacy profiles compared with the immedi- ate- release forms. 44 | C h a p t e r 1 6 Oppositional Defiant Disorder and Conduct Disorder Select the single best response for each question. 16.1 The most common comorbid disorder found with oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) is A. Separation anxiety disorder. B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). C. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). D. Major depressive disorder. E. Dysthymic disorder. 16.2 Which of the following family attributes are correlated with higher rates of oppositional behaviors? A. Parental discord. B. Domestic violence. C. Low family cohesion. D. Child abuse. E. All of the above. 16.3 Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) is most predictive of the later occurrence of which of the following disorders? A. Antisocial personality disorder. B. Conduct disorder. C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder. D. Substance use disorder. E. Mood disorder. 16.4 Which of the following psychotherapeutic interventions have been shown to have the greatest efficacy in treating oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)? A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy. B. Family therapy. C. Parent management training. D. Psychodynamic psychotherapy. E. None of the above. 16.5 Conduct disorder is more prevalent in which of the following populations? A. Boys. B. Rural communities. C. Higher socioeconomic status families. D. Suburbs. E. Neighborhoods with low rates of crime. 46 | C h a p t e r 1 7 Substance Abuse and Addictions Select the single best response for each question. 17.1 All of the following statements regarding the definition and diagnosis of substance abuse or dependence are correct except A. Substance use per se is sufficient for a diagnosis of abuse or dependence. B. Misuse can be defined as use for a purpose not consistent with medical guidelines. C. Recurrent substance use in adolescents rarely leads to impaired functioning. D. The diagnosis of substance abuse requires evidence of a maladaptive pattern of substance use with clinically significant levels of impairment or distress. E. A substance dependence diagnosis requires that additional criteria, such as withdrawal, tolerance, and loss of control over use, be met. 17.2 Regarding the comorbidity of substance use disorder (SUD), all of the following statements are correct except A. In addiction treatment programs, more than 50% of adolescents with co-occurring mental illness have three or more co-occurring psychiatric disorders. B. The most common comorbid conditions are conduct problems, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disor- der (ADHD), mood disorders, and trauma-related symptoms. C. Some studies of youth with SUD show that females exhibit more internalizing symptoms than males. D. Except for depression, the early symptoms of most psychiatric disorders generally emerge prior to the onset of substance use. E. The specific type of a comorbid psychiatric diagnosis predicts relapse risk. 17.3 The “gateway” substances with which most adolescents start are A. Tobacco and alcohol. B. Inhalants. C. Marijuana and alcohol. D. Amphetamines. E. Over-the-counter cough and cold medicines. 17.4 All of the following statements regarding the validity of adolescent self-report of substance use are true except A. A majority of adolescents in drug clinics or schools provide temporally consistent reports. B. An “intake-discharge effect” is often observed, wherein the level of use reported at discharge is much lower than that endorsed at admission to a treatment program.